There are really two issues here. And a combination of the two.
One, can a salaried exempt employee's salary be docked for intermittent FMLA leave? The answer is yes. (b)(7) in the link below
Second, can there by a difference in pay policy for one employee taking "sick" time for themselves vs taking "sick" time for a family member? The answer there is also yes. Because the employer does not offer a sick pay replacement plan, the salaried exempt employee's salary cannot be docked for absences of less than a full workweek for the employee's illness or injury; there is no similar provision for the employee's children's illness or injury (b)(2) in this same regulation:
[url]http://www.dol.gov/dol/allcfr/ESA/Title_29/Part_541/29CFR541.602.htm[/url]
Now comes the combination part and this is where the exceptions may contradict each other, as you can probably see. The real question is, which exception overrides the other?
My educated guess is that the FMLA exception would be primary, even with no sick pay program. But, I have never worked with or even heard of a company which was big enough to be subject to FMLA, but did not offer a sick pay replacement plan (or PTO, where vacation and sick are combined) for exempt employees.
Having said that, there is no law saying that the employer cannot pay anyway (using vacation or other paid time off available) and I am not aware of any provision in either the FLSA or the FMLA which would see this as discrimination, since being a parent is not a protected class.
Unless another responder with more experience in FMLA than I have has another idea, I would try to contact the US Dept of Labor, which regulates both the FLSA and the FMLA, and ask the question as to which exception is applicable in this case.
Last edited by pattytx; 07-31-2010 at 08:13 AM.
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