Estate owns 40% of house

[SteveMc991]

What is the name of your state? California

Deceased owned only 40% of house, and beneficiary A owned 60%. The rest of the estate is to go to beneficiaries A, B, C & D equally. Are not house-related debts, such as propery tax, appraisals, etc, as well as income such as rent figured at only 40% that the estate owns (beneficiaries A, B, C & D ) ?
Simply stated, with a, e.g. $1000 propert tax bill, doesn't beneficiary A have to pay 60% of the bill ($600), and only present 40% ($400) as an estate debt ?
What about utilities ? Would they be considered also as the above 60/40 spilt ?

Thanks,

Steve

 

[Dandy Don]

Did the property tax bill arrive before or after the decedent's death?

Since the utilities were used primarily by the decedent, it wouldn't make sense to be charging those to a beneficiary, unless the beneficiary also lived there.

 

[SteveMc991]

Actually, there are 3 years worth of property tax bills, all after the death. In addition, there are Homeowners Assoc. fees, utilities, etc. The house is being rented by beneficiary A's son, who was renting from the decedent prior to her death. Beneficiary A is attempting to charge the estate all utulitiy usage, homeowners fees, housecleaning, etc. for a 6 month period just after the decendents death, stating that because the house was on the market for a few months in that period, the estate should cover it. Basically, she's trying to get her son a free ride for appx. 6 months, not even paying any rent. Our position ( Beneficiaries B, C & D) is that regardless of the house being on the market for a few months, he should have been paying rent, paying his own utilities, etc. for the entire time. And that beneficiary A ( the 60% owner) would get 60% of the rent and pay 60% of the homeowners fees, and that the beneficiaries A,B,C & D, would be responsible for 40% of the above ( but none of the utilities, housecleaning, etc.)