A
Actryss
Guest
My mother owned a property together with a partner(Dot).
When their relationship broke down my mother deeded her interest in the property to me almost 4 years ago.
Now I am being taken to probate court, Dot is claiming that
because I didnt put up any money when the property was purchased that the property is primarily hers. Also Dot is claiming that because I have not paid anything toward the property taxes that the property needs to be sold with a larger portion belonging to her. She also claims that she has paid thousands of dollars for improvements Which I am not aware of. Dot has had full control of the property for 4 years, She did move out of the property for approx 9 months and she rented it out to a third party ( I dont know what she received for rent). She did move back in. Dot also hired a lumberjack company and had all the trees removed from the land. She did not file an intent to cut with the town which would have required both owners signatures. I don't know if she received money for the lumber that was removed.-- I remember learning in a paralegal class that in most cases both owners are responsible for the taxes etc.. but in some situations the occupying tenant has a duty to pay the taxes, upkeep and mortgage payments.(there is no mortgage on the property.)
Please tell me that what I remember is correct because it is the core of my case. And is there a law or something that would back up my position, that the property is to be sold and the proceeds divided equally.(Property in New Hampshire)
[Edited by Actryss on 01-06-2001 at 05:03 PM]
When their relationship broke down my mother deeded her interest in the property to me almost 4 years ago.
Now I am being taken to probate court, Dot is claiming that
because I didnt put up any money when the property was purchased that the property is primarily hers. Also Dot is claiming that because I have not paid anything toward the property taxes that the property needs to be sold with a larger portion belonging to her. She also claims that she has paid thousands of dollars for improvements Which I am not aware of. Dot has had full control of the property for 4 years, She did move out of the property for approx 9 months and she rented it out to a third party ( I dont know what she received for rent). She did move back in. Dot also hired a lumberjack company and had all the trees removed from the land. She did not file an intent to cut with the town which would have required both owners signatures. I don't know if she received money for the lumber that was removed.-- I remember learning in a paralegal class that in most cases both owners are responsible for the taxes etc.. but in some situations the occupying tenant has a duty to pay the taxes, upkeep and mortgage payments.(there is no mortgage on the property.)
Please tell me that what I remember is correct because it is the core of my case. And is there a law or something that would back up my position, that the property is to be sold and the proceeds divided equally.(Property in New Hampshire)
[Edited by Actryss on 01-06-2001 at 05:03 PM]