A
Actryss
Guest
My mother owned a property together with a partner(Dot).
When their relationship broke down my mother deeded her interest in the property to me almost 4 years ago.
Now I am being taken to probate court, Dot is claiming that
because I didnt put up any money when the property was purchased that the property is primarily hers. Also Dot is claiming that because I have not paid anything toward the property taxes that the property needs to be sold with a larger portion belonging to her. She also claims that she has paid thousands of dollars for improvements Which I am not aware of. Dot has had full control of the property for 4 years, She did move out of the property for approx 9 months and she rented it out to a third party ( I dont know what she received for rent). She did move back in. Dot also hired a lumberjack company and had all the trees removed from the land. She did not file an intent to cut with the town which would have required both owners signatures. I don't know if she received money for the lumber that was removed.-- I remember learning in a paralegal class that in most cases both owners are responsible for the taxes etc.. but in some situations the occupying tenant has a duty to pay the taxes, upkeep and mortgage payments.(there is no mortgage on the property.)
Please tell me that what I remember is correct because it is the core of my case. And is there a law or something that would back up my position, that the property is to be sold and the proceeds divided equally.(Property in New Hampshire)
When their relationship broke down my mother deeded her interest in the property to me almost 4 years ago.
Now I am being taken to probate court, Dot is claiming that
because I didnt put up any money when the property was purchased that the property is primarily hers. Also Dot is claiming that because I have not paid anything toward the property taxes that the property needs to be sold with a larger portion belonging to her. She also claims that she has paid thousands of dollars for improvements Which I am not aware of. Dot has had full control of the property for 4 years, She did move out of the property for approx 9 months and she rented it out to a third party ( I dont know what she received for rent). She did move back in. Dot also hired a lumberjack company and had all the trees removed from the land. She did not file an intent to cut with the town which would have required both owners signatures. I don't know if she received money for the lumber that was removed.-- I remember learning in a paralegal class that in most cases both owners are responsible for the taxes etc.. but in some situations the occupying tenant has a duty to pay the taxes, upkeep and mortgage payments.(there is no mortgage on the property.)
Please tell me that what I remember is correct because it is the core of my case. And is there a law or something that would back up my position, that the property is to be sold and the proceeds divided equally.(Property in New Hampshire)