I counted. If US law applied here, which it does not, there are nine states in which the mother might under some limited circumstances have a claim to a small percentage of the estate. Not the part that was gifted to someone else. Under no law would she be entitled to anything but a percentage of what was left. And too bad for our greedy little poster - since US law does not apply it doesn't matter one whit what she might have been able to claim if US law applies.
And in no way, under any US law in any state, does the poster himself have a claim to a single penny. I hope this is now clear to him. Because he's posting this question all over the internet and the obvious desperation of his greed is making me ill.