Sorry for the gender error. Your OP wasn't clear.
He obviously can't make both claims and your friend might well be an excellent witness to call if he states in court either thing happened.
Was your husband represented by a lawyer?
Sorry I was unclear about that and the situation in general. I don't think he intends to make both, more that he is "brainstorming" ideas to overturn the divorce.
Yes, at the time of the divorce we both had representation.
Let's see...
If he tries to say that, here are some of the possibilities that I can think of:
1) If the divorce is finalized, both parties had legal representation, and the time frame to appeal has passed, nothing should happen.
2) Even if one of the parties had legal representation and the other did not, regardless of which of you, he is accusing a member of the bar of an ethics violation. Because a valid ethics violation could negatively affect the lawyer's reputation and therefore career, expect the lawyer to *legally* defend their reputation and livelihood. Again, that should not affect the divorce.
Thank you, that's comforting.
So,, does he think his lawyer was colluding with yours, or that his lawyer was just incompetent?
If both lawyers got the same papers, I fail to see what his point is.
I don't think he believes either option. I think this is a manipulation tactic, and his idea to change the status of our divorce is to try and invalidate the signature by saying either he never signed the papers, or was he tricked into signing.
The situation is this:
I found out he'd been seeing another woman for some time while we were married, I filed for divorce and his girlfriend broke up with him after finding out he was married.
At some point during the divorce the two of them started having contact again, and she agreed to take him back only after our divorce was finalized, and it was only after she agreed to get back together he finally signed (He had drug out our divorce for a long time).
The day after our divorce was finalized (just over 3 months ago) he moved in with her, and I moved to the opposite side of the state shortly after.
About two weeks ago he started trying to make contact with me, and I found out from friends in the area he and his girlfriend broke up recently under messy circumstances.
I have blocked his number and ignored all other attempts at contact as I don't not want to give any false impressions that I'm interested in having him back in my life.
I think his point is most likely to force contact again through the courts. The reason I'm asking here is because after the divorce and the move my savings were decimated. I took nothing but my personal possessions from the marriage, and none of it is worth much. So if he does try to pull something I have no money to hire an attorney with.
He has buyer's remorse and is spouting off to his friends. Maybe even in the hopes that she will hear about it and freak out.
Probably this exactly.
