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Is the man responsible to share in a woman's pregnancy medical bills?

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sandyclaus

Senior Member
What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? California

We have a debate going on in another forum I belong to, and I was hoping to get some other opinions - both professional and laymen's - on the subject.

A man and a woman are casually dating (not boyfriend/girlfriend, not steady dating, just friends with benefits). In the course of their casual encounters, the woman becomes pregnant. It is learned shortly thereafter that the pregnancy is an ectopic, which will not survive birth, and so the woman is required to have medical intervention to surgically terminate the pregnancy.

Does the male partner in this twosome bear any legal responsibility/liability for any portion of the woman's medical bills? In the scenario above (real story), once the woman told him that she had become pregnant, and that it was an ectopic pregnancy which she had to terminate, and that she expected him to pay for her medical costs, he (of course) disappeared and magically became unreachable.

My opinion is NO. I believe that unless / until the pregnancy results in the birth of a child, the woman is responsible for her own medical care. Others have argued that the man bears joint legal and moral responsibility to share in the costs of the medical costs. Can anyone give me any factual legal opinion on the matter?

TIA, as always.
 


cbg

I'm a Northern Girl
Legally, no, she is responsible for her own bills and he bears no responsibility.

An argument could be made that he is responsible ethically and morally. An equal argument could be made that he has no responsibility in those areas either.

But legally, she's on her own.
 

sandyclaus

Senior Member
Legally, no, she is responsible for her own bills and he bears no responsibility.

An argument could be made that he is responsible ethically and morally. An equal argument could be made that he has no responsibility in those areas either.

But legally, she's on her own.
Please tell me you have some legal backing on that opinion which I share. I've got some paralegal claiming that the man IS financially responsible. Ethically and morally, maybe - and I say maybe, because they weren't even in a committed relationship. I need some ammo to prove her very wrong.
 

Silverplum

Senior Member
Please tell me you have some legal backing on that opinion which I share. I've got some paralegal claiming that the man IS financially responsible. Ethically and morally, maybe - and I say maybe, because they weren't even in a committed relationship. I need some ammo to prove her very wrong.
Depends on the state. Mine made such a (contradictory and stupid) law regarding forced sharing of pregnancy expenses.

Her body, her choice, plus expenses. :rolleyes::rolleyes::rolleyes:
 

sandyclaus

Senior Member
Depends on the state. Mine made such a (contradictory and stupid) law regarding forced sharing of pregnancy expenses.

Her body, her choice, plus expenses. :rolleyes::rolleyes::rolleyes:
Yeah, I get that. I say that if you take the risk of getting pregnant (by consensual sex, with or without proper precautions), you need to take personal responsibility for that choice.

I mean, if they are going to make the man responsible for pregnancy medical costs, will they also make the woman responsible for a man's prostate exams? Or when he has some other medical condition brought about by sexual activity with her?

The state in question here would be California, BTW.
 

Silverplum

Senior Member
I just read a STUPID opinion article from 2012 in the NY Times, in support of forcing men to pay pregnancy expenses, and suggesting the word for that be "preglimony."

:rolleyes:::p
 

Silverplum

Senior Member
Yeah, I get that. I say that if you take the risk of getting pregnant (by consensual sex, with or without proper precautions), you need to take personal responsibility for that choice.

I mean, if they are going to make the man responsible for pregnancy medical costs, will they also make the woman responsible for a man's prostate exams? Or when he has some other medical condition brought about by sexual activity with her?

The state in question here would be California, BTW.
I've been looking for CA; not finding any law yet. :cool:
 

sandyclaus

Senior Member
I just read a STUPID opinion article from 2012 in the NY Times, in support of forcing men to pay pregnancy expenses, and suggesting the word for that be "preglimony."

:rolleyes:::p
Yeah, I read that too. Such silliness.

What I read was that the opinion is in support of it, NOT that it's a legally enforceable option as of yet (in NY, that is).
 

LdiJ

Senior Member
I've been looking for CA; not finding any law yet. :cool:
There is one scenario that I am pretty sure is consistent in all states. If Medicaid is paying for the pregnancy expenses then they do go after the father for reimbursement.
 

sandyclaus

Senior Member
There is one scenario that I am pretty sure is consistent in all states. If Medicaid is paying for the pregnancy expenses then they do go after the father for reimbursement.
Yeah, but that is only if the child is born, I believe. If it's Medicaid services just for the mother, it's a non-starter.
 

Just Blue

Senior Member
What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? California

We have a debate going on in another forum I belong to, and I was hoping to get some other opinions - both professional and laymen's - on the subject.

A man and a woman are casually dating (not boyfriend/girlfriend, not steady dating, just friends with benefits). In the course of their casual encounters, the woman becomes pregnant. It is learned shortly thereafter that the pregnancy is an ectopic, which will not survive birth, and so the woman is required to have medical intervention to surgically terminate the pregnancy.

Does the male partner in this twosome bear any legal responsibility/liability for any portion of the woman's medical bills? In the scenario above (real story), once the woman told him that she had become pregnant, and that it was an ectopic pregnancy which she had to terminate, and that she expected him to pay for her medical costs, he (of course) disappeared and magically became unreachable.

My opinion is NO. I believe that unless / until the pregnancy results in the birth of a child, the woman is responsible for her own medical care. Others have argued that the man bears joint legal and moral responsibility to share in the costs of the medical costs. Can anyone give me any factual legal opinion on the matter?

TIA, as always.
Was a DNA test done to confirm this was his child? If not, and given a casual sex of this "relationship", how can potential father be accountable for this medical expense?
 

LdiJ

Senior Member
Yeah, but that is only if the child is born, I believe. If it's Medicaid services just for the mother, it's a non-starter.
I think you are right, but that what may be causing the paralegal to think that all fathers are responsible...even without Medicaid being used or without a birth.
 

sandyclaus

Senior Member
Was a DNA test done to confirm this was his child? If not, and given a casual sex of this "relationship", how can potential father be accountable for this medical expense?
It was an ectopic pregnancy, and No, I don't believe that DNA testing was done on the resulting remains.

I know that it is possible to test amniotic fluid, but that isn't generally present in an ectopic. Can one even test the results of an aborted miniscule pregnancy for DNA? Is that feasible?
 

Just Blue

Senior Member
It was an ectopic pregnancy, and No, I don't believe that DNA testing was done on the resulting remains.

I know that it is possible to test amniotic fluid, but that isn't generally present in an ectopic. Can one even test the results of an aborted miniscule pregnancy for DNA? Is that feasible?
To my knowledge it is possible and expensive. But if it was not done, how can this man be liable for medical expenses for his (sorry) "bootie call"? After all...The woman may have had other casual sex partners.

And yes. It is making me kinda sick reading my own post. :(
 

LdiJ

Senior Member
It was an ectopic pregnancy, and No, I don't believe that DNA testing was done on the resulting remains.

I know that it is possible to test amniotic fluid, but that isn't generally present in an ectopic. Can one even test the results of an aborted miniscule pregnancy for DNA? Is that feasible?
I don't have the slightest idea, but its probably not outside of the realm of possibility. DNA can be identified from pretty tiny samples.
 

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