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@not2cleverRed
To further answer your question, I can tell you this.
I was granted full and exclusive use of the marital home, which was later sold and split the proceeds.
I have since purchased another home (rooms for each of the children).
The current situation of the children is that they share 1 bedroom with their mother.
My son (9 years old) currently sleeps in a full bed with my ex, while my daughter (younger) sleeps on the floor.
So I stand by my writing... to a lesser extent, the purchase of a home.
As far as your posting that you are not surprised as to the time I received, I find it fascinating that you would post something like that based on what you perceived in text.
I AM NOT SURE if you are a lawyer, and if you are, if you are able practice in Texas, but I am sure that you know (as well as I do... and I am NOT a lawyer), that even the appeals courts give the fact that "inflections", "mannerisms", "personality", and any other aspects associated with common discussion
cannot gained through written word.
Therefore, the appeals courts always give discretion to the trial judge because (s)he was able to witness the parties in their testimony.
There is a distinct difference between "associating intent" to written words (i.e. saying that a person comes across as snarky, rude, arrogant, or other) and calling someone a "liar" in written form (a direct attack that is not inferred).
Thank you again for your post.
I hope that you take a moment and re-read all that was written to put it in some sort of context.