Why is the IRS illegally taxing people?

[Jameson]

Staples v. U.S., 21 F Supp 737 U.S. Dist. Ct. ED PA, 1937]. "Income within the meaning
of the Sixteenth Amendment and Revenue Act, means 'gains '...and in such connection
'gain' means profit...proceeding from property, severed from capital, however invested or
employed and coming in, received or drawn by the taxpayer, for his separate use, benefit
and disposal...Income is not a wage or compensation for any type of labor."

 

[PayrollHRGuy]

How about you stop paying and then just use that cite when you end up in court.

 

[Mass_Shyster]

Staples v. U.S., 21 F Supp 737 U.S. Dist. Ct. ED PA, 1937]. "Income within the meaning
of the Sixteenth Amendment and Revenue Act, means 'gains '...and in such connection
'gain' means profit...proceeding from property, severed from capital, however invested or
employed and coming in, received or drawn by the taxpayer, for his separate use, benefit
and disposal...Income is not a wage or compensation for any type of labor."

Here is the text of the opinion of Staples v. United States, 21 F. Supp. 737 - Dist. Court, ED Pennsylvania 1937:

https://scholar.google.com/scholar_case?case=6472922329517103644
You'll see that the text you quoted does not appear within that decision. You will find this:

Income has been defined as "the gain derived from capital, from labor, or from both combined"

However I recently heard an argument that "Federal Income Tax" is a tax applicable only to "Federal Income". So if you are not a Federal employee, you are not required to pay tax. The proponent goes on to show what form to file in order to "correct" the W2 issued by the employer to correct for the mis-classified income. BTW, this guy currently has a GPS strapped to his ankle and will probably end up in jail pretty soon. Not for income tax, but for a different issue where he interprets the law differently than the rest of society.

 

[PayrollHRGuy]

The OP is gone. I was hoping to enjoy this one.