Who said anything about acquiescence? I stated the ability to argue the implied in fact agreement would be based on the creditors actions among other issues. Such support might be a regular statement acknowledging the payment with a running balance noted with no notice that the debt is due in full immediately. There are other possible actions that would cause a debtor to believe there is a payment agreement as well.
How about a scotus quote
An implied in fact contract exists as, an agreement founded upon a meeting of minds, which, although not embodied in an express contract, is inferred, as a fact, from conduct of the parties showing, in the light of the surrounding circumstances, their tacit understanding.
If that doesn’t fit a situation where the allowance of an action without objection especially if undertaken for an extended period of time, does not create an implied in fact agreement regarding a payment agreement ...well...it does.
Arguing an implied in fact agreement is not enforceable flies in the face of reasonableness. Heck, going to work everyday without specific invite week after week and expecting to be paid is an implied in fact agreement. Nobody said you need to come in next week. You do because you’ve come in every Monday the last 5 years and they have paid you for it. It may have been based on some other agreement originally but since we have surpassed the 1 year statute of limitations issue and you are still showing up for work, there is an implied in fact contract that your job continues until further notice. That doesn’t have to be memorialized in writing nor does it have to be an express agreement yet until terminated it is an agreement supported by action.
Unless you can find law contrary to my claims, there is no reason that when a person makes regular payments for some reasonable amount of time without objection that the debtor cannot stand on claiming an implied in action agreement was created.
So, for a there to be a requirement a contract must be in writing, there must be law supporting it. Y’all have not presented anything supporting your claim the agreement must be in writing. If you can, I’ll sit down. Until then, your claims are not sustainable as it is simply your statement without support. Yes, you all have stated that such an agreement must be in writing.
If true,,then no debtor can make a valid agreement for repayment less than payment in full unless it is in a written agreement. Since that is not true as a verbal agreement is enforceable where it can be proven barring where then the law requires a written agreement, your argument it must be in writing is wrong.
So, it’s time you all prove your claim that any agreement for repayment of a debt less than payment in full must be in writing.
Here is Quincy’s statement
I agree with the others about the bill payment arrangement needing to be in writing but I have a question about the reason for these medical debts.
Why must it be in writing?. Why wouldn’t a verbal agreement be enforceable?