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received a 1099-c in the mail

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jjbankhead

Junior Member
What is the name of your state? ca

i received a 1099-c for an old debt i have not been able to pay, what does this mean?

how does it affect what has already been reported to my credit?

will they hold these funds from my taxes?

the balance is just over $5000
 


annajosie

Member
When you receive a 1099C, it means the creditor has forgiven the debt. I don't think this will affect your credit rating one way or the other. What it means is you will have to declare the amount forgiven as income for the IRS and will probably have to pay taxes on the amount.

As far as I know, if you can prove you are insolvent then you do not have to pay the taxes or if you file bankruptcy, then you do not have to pay the taxes.

I'm sure there are many here on this board more knowledgeable than me and will advise you.
 

racer72

Senior Member
what does this mean?
This means the creditor has stopped the collection process and written off the debt.

how does it affect what has already been reported to my credit?
It will show as written off. Make sure the the listing says the balance owed is 0. If not you will get junk debt buyers trying to trying to collect on the debt in the future.

will they hold these funds from my taxes?
No, it means you have to include that amount as taxable income and pay income taxes on it. Just hope you were going to get a big enough refund to cover the additional taxes you will have.
 

justalayman

Senior Member
=racer72;1823040]This means the creditor has stopped the collection process and written off the debt.
more correctly; it means they have cancelled the debt, which is a huge difference from writing off a debt. A written off debt is still a debt. A cancelled debt is not longer a debt.


It will show as written off. Make sure the the listing says the balance owed is 0. If not you will get junk debt buyers trying to trying to collect on the debt in the future.
Not sure here but I believe the same thing applies with written of v. cancelled

No, it means you have to include that amount as taxable income and pay income taxes on it. QUOTE]
I agree unless you are insolvent per the IRS instructions. In that case, you do not have to include it in your gross income.
 

jjbankhead

Junior Member
thanks layman and racer that heps i read every inch of the form and googled it (how i found this forumn) but nothing stated how it would affect my credit and or if i would still have to pay. now i see.

thanks for taking the time to help.
 

Debt Guy

Senior Member
Can an attempt ever be made to collect the debt again once you've received a 1099-c and paid taxes on it?

I am told by an Enrolled Agent the answer is "Yes" and he refers me to a Tax Court ruling "Debt Buyers Association v. U.S. Treasury #06-101 Jan 30, 2006" -- but I have not personally tried to research that reference.

However, the concept makes a lot of sense to me. I know this sounds counter-intuitive and I'll try to explain but it takes some background to get your head around the matter.

Congress has said that if you borrow money and don't pay it back, then that borrowing becomes taxable income. For example, if you borrow $10,000, you did not pay taxes on the loan proceeds -- it is not income. When you pay back the $10,000, you don't get a deduction for the principal payment -- so it all balances out.

But, if you don't pay back the bank, then the bank goes through an accounting exercise -- they take a loss to earnings and thus reduce their taxable income and the thus the taxes they pay.

Now, it is all out of whack. So, the IRS (with the blessing of Congress) says "OK, the debt not paid back is now income to the borrower and the borrower pays taxes on the amount". So, the government's books are kinda back in balance.

The issuance of the 1099 is the triggering event.

In the beginning, only the government was required to issue a 1099 on an unpaid debt -- this began with all the bank and S&L failures in the early 80s. When the Feds took over a bank, they were required to issue the 1099 to debtors who did not pay. I think this was originally a collection tool.

Later, any insured institution (a bank) was required to issue a 1099 where the loss was greater than $600.

In 2006 the definition has changed to require any debt holder (debt buyers) to issue 1099s. At that same time, the guidelines where changed and a timing/activity trigger was added to require issuance of a 1099. Up until this time a 1099 was issued only when the creditor "abandoned" efforts to collect the debt (a settlement obviously fits in that definition). Absent a settlement, creditors generally never "abandoned" the debt in the hope they could sell it or someday collect it. The IRS did not like this idea of all this potential tax revenue sitting out there forever.

Simple so far. Here is where it gets complicated.

There are now two events that trigger the issuance of the 1099. The first is the one we all understand. You owe $10,000 and settle for $6000 and they issue a 1099 for $4000. Clearly, in that case, the creditor cannot later seek to recover the $4000. But, in my opinion, it is not the issuance of the 1099 that provides the barrier -- it is the written agreement between creditor and debtor to settle the debt (only a total moron would do a settlement without such an agreement).

The second trigger is much more complex. The IRS requires the issuance of the 1099 upon the passage of a certain amount of time under a certain activity scenario. If you owe $10,000 in this scenario, you get the 1099 for the entire $10,000.

In my opinion, in this latter scenario, the issuance of the 1099 does not bar the creditor from later collecting the debt. It is noteworthy that the Tax Court feels the same way.

I don't know the logic of the Tax Court. My analysis of the reasoning is: If the IRS bars collection merely because the 1099 was issued as the result of a technical event, then this would be an "unfair taking" of property under the Constitution and would thus be a major no-no.

It would be easy to argue that the "unfair taking" is really no different than the expiration of a statute of limitation. The counterargument would be that an expired sol is not a bar to collection but merely a bar to use of one particular collection tool.

I can just hear folks saying, "wait, I could get screwed twice on the same deal -- I have to pay taxes and then pay back the bank also". Not really and let me explain with an example of what happens on the bank's books when they recover a charged off loan.

When a bank charges off a loan they "charge it to earnings". That means earnings was reduced by the amount of the loan. If they later recover all or a part of the loan, the recovery goes directly to earnings and is thus taxable.

I see the same scenario where a consumer gets a 1099 and pays his taxes. Later he pays all or part of the debt. Logically, he will get a "correcting 1099" and thus will now have a tax credit proportionate to the taxes already paid on the portion of the debt that was "un-forgiven"-- just invented a new word.

I have not seen much conversation of this whole issue. I personally lived through the bank failures and was hands on with 1099s thereafter. To me, this is the logical extension of the thought process.

I think we are going to see a lot more conversation on this topic as the new ruling really kicks in and debt buyers start to issue 1099s on the inactive accounts in their portfolios.

My guess is that many posters who come to a board like this are insolvent (liabilities exceed assets). If you are insolvent at the time the indebtedness is discharged, you do not have to report the discharge as income. See Tax Form 982 (you can download it from the IRS website).

I think I may have rambled too much here. If I had time, I would start over and try to be more coherent. Queries?
 

Country Living

Senior Member
Great explanation. I have two questions.

If the original creditor writes off $10,0000 and the debt buyer purchases the debt several years later for, say, $200 (this is an example only), then the 1099 from the debt purchaser can only be for the $200. Is that correct? Otherwise the debt buyer is over-collecting their investment.

If the debt is past the SOL, can a 1099 still be issued?

For some reason I thought only the original creditor could issue a 1099. I see all kinds of problems allowing debt buyers to issue one, especially when they pass the debt from collector to collector several times over.
 

justalayman

Senior Member
I think I may have rambled too much here. If I had time, I would start over and try to be more coherent. Queries?


If the money that was the debt has now been considered income, then it can no longer be a debt, correct?

also, if as you say the debt that became income can still be a debt, how could it ever be claimed as income? Income is income and debt is debt.

Logically, he will get a "correcting 1099" and thus will now have a tax credit proportionate to the taxes already paid on the portion of the debt that was "un-forgiven"-- just invented a new word.
Logically? Unless it is mandatory and the amount repaid can be deducted from the taxpayers income, then what happens is the taxpayer pays taxes on the money as income AND the still must repay the money but not be allowed to use it as a deduction.

So, is there any mandatory and regulatory requirements for such actions? If not, then THAT is an unfair taking.

as a debt collector, have you or your company ever issued a 1099 for such a debt and by chance has any money evre been paid back on an account that you had issued a 1099 for? Did you issue some sort of correction 1099 to reflect the amount repaid?
 

Debt Guy

Senior Member
If the original creditor writes off $10,0000 and the debt buyer purchases the debt several years later for, say, $200 (this is an example only), then the 1099 from the debt purchaser can only be for the $200. Is that correct? Otherwise the debt buyer is over-collecting their investment.

The amount a debt buyer pays for rights to a debt is irrelevant. The taxable amount is based on your ascension to income. In your example, $10,000.

Actually, if you know you're not going to pay the debt, you're supposed to report it as income even if you never receved a 1099. My sense is most people won't report the income unless they do get a 1099. Kind of like running a stop sign and not getting caught. How many people are going to turn themselves in and ask for a ticket?


If the debt is past the SOL, can a 1099 still be issued?

There are 8 identifiable events in the tax code under which a 1099-c is required to be issued. One of those identifiable events is the running of a debts limitations period. From the Internal Revenue Code Sec. 1.6050P-1(b)(2)(i)(C)

A cancellation or extinguishment of an indebtedness upon the expiration of the statute of limitations for collection of an indebtedness, subject to the limitations described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, or upon the expiration of a statutory period for filing a claim or commencing a deficiency judgment proceeding;

(ii) Statute of limitations. In the case of an expiration of the statute of limitations for collection of an indebtedness, an identifiable event occurs under paragraph (b)(2)(i)(C) of this section only if, and at such time as, a debtor's affirmative statute of limitations defense is upheld in a final judgment or decision of a judicial proceeding, and the period for appealing the judgment or decision has expired.

As you can see, the identifiable event an expired limitations period only occurs upon adjudication of the matter using the SOL as a defense in court, and then only after the appeals period has expired.


For some reason I thought only the original creditor could issue a 1099. I see all kinds of problems allowing debt buyers to issue one, especially when they pass the debt from collector to collector several times over.

The new laws became effective in 2006. That's when the IRS clarified its definition of a "financial institution" to include debt buyers. There are a number of cases available involving creditors and the issuance of 1099's.


If the money that was the debt has now been considered income, then it can no longer be a debt, correct?

also, if as you say the debt that became income can still be a debt, how could it ever be claimed as income? Income is income and debt is debt.


You are trying to engage me in a semantics game and I don't have time for that. I know where you are going. You are trying to argue that once the taxes have been paid, the debt no longer exists and thus the creditor has no right to collect. Right?

As I explained in my first responsive post, the answer is that the issuance of the 1099c and payment of taxes does not in and of itself extinguish the debtor's liability for payment.

I know this is convoluted and a new concept to you. Please don't fuss with me about it. I did not make it up. Take it up with your congressweasel if you don't like it.


Logically? Unless it is mandatory and the amount repaid can be deducted from the taxpayers income, then what happens is the taxpayer pays taxes on the money as income AND the still must repay the money but not be allowed to use it as a deduction.

I use the phrase "logically" because that is to me the logical sequence of events. By using that language I am implying that I have no specific knowledge of the internal procedures of a creditor nor have I been party to any of the communication between the IRS and 1099 reporters (I am sure that it is all available on the IRS website).

It is certainly not logical that a taxpayer would pay taxes on the income and then not be allowed some sort of deduction or offset if he later paid the debt.

But, I think I said all that. I can't tell if you are expressing frustration or chastising me for not knowing exactly how it is handled by the IRS.


So, is there any mandatory and regulatory requirements for such actions? If not, then THAT is an unfair taking.

I don't think I said that. But, yes the tax code is quite explicit for when the 1099c must be issued.


As a debt collector, have you or your company ever issued a 1099 for such a debt and by chance has any money evre been paid back on an account that you had issued a 1099 for? Did you issue some sort of correction 1099 to reflect the amount repaid?

I would not have any specific information how debt collectors are handling this. I am not in that business. My hands on experience with 1099s was in the banking business some years ago and some consulting work I occasionally do for banks.

I do know that corrected 1099s are not unusual. The IRS publishes extensive guidelines for reporters to use.

I will say that many debt buyers are probably unclear on the new laws. One of my acquaintances in the debt buying business outlined for me an interesting problem they were trying to figure out.

If a creditor fails to issue a 1099-c upon an identifiable event, their maximum fine under the new law is $50.00

If they issue a fraudulent 1099-c, the law provides the 1099-c recipient with a private right of action, with statutory penalties of $5,000.00.

I see a whole new can of worms here where the creditor and recipient fight over the "proper amount" of the 1099c. If the debtor were to take the position that 1099-c issued was fraudulent as to the amount … what would be the outcome? Does the debt buyer take their chances with the IRS for $50, or with the debtor for $5,000? Does the debtor file a lawsuit for a declaratory judgment to get a definitive answer? Is it a tax court question?

And I can see a particularly nasty fuss where the debt buyer failed or refused to validate a debt. In that case, my expectation is that debt buyers will just validate the debt with the minimum plain language requirement of the FDCPA (name and address of the original creditor). But, as we know there is a hard-core group of debtors who refuse to accept that definition. That is the making of legal action. Anytime one gets in court the odds of success are generally about 50/50. How will it turn out? I don’t have a clue except that it sure will be a can of worms.
 
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Country Living

Senior Member
The amount a debt buyer pays for rights to a debt is irrelevant. The taxable amount is based on your ascension to income. In your example, $10,000.

Please bear with me. I'm trying to understand this.

Why can the debt collector record the entire $10,000 as earnings when their "asset" is only $200? I thought that situation was the basis for IRS frowning on these kinds of actions in years past.

I'm a little lost on your "identifiable event" in regard to the SOL - does that mean the debt collector would issue the 1099 only after the SOL was used as a defense in court?

Maybe I'm reading too much into this. It seems as if a debt collector could buy up lots of bad debts and simply issue 1099s for the original amount and come out pretty nice on their financials. Then that debt collector could sell the note to another debt collector who would also issue a 1099 and it goes on and on.
 

Country Living

Senior Member
I need to clarify I have absolutely no problem with an original creditor issuing a 1099. I see huge problems with potential for abuse if debt collectors issue them.
 

Debt Guy

Senior Member
Why can the debt collector record the entire $10,000 as earnings when their "asset" is only $200? I thought that situation was the basis for IRS frowning on these kinds of actions in years past.

You are confused. Lets start basic.

You and the Bank only: You owe $10,000 and don't pay. The bank charges that $10,000 to their earnings as a loss. The bank issues you a 1099c for $10,000. You pay taxes on $10,000.

You and the Bank and a debt buyer: You owe $10,000 and don't pay. The bank sells the loan for $500 and charges $9,500 to their earnings as a loss. You don't pay the debt buyer. The debt buyer charges their earnings $500 (which was their tax basis in the asset) as a loss. The debt buyer issues you a 1099c for $10,000. You pay taxes on $10,000.

It all ends up exactly the same.


I'm a little lost on your "identifiable event" in regard to the SOL - does that mean the debt collector would issue the 1099 only after the SOL was used as a defense in court?

Yes and no. Remember there are 8 different events that trigger the 1099. But, yes, if you raise the SOL in court and prevail, than the 1099 is issued because of the identifiable trigger event.


Maybe I'm reading too much into this. It seems as if a debt collector could buy up lots of bad debts and simply issue 1099s for the original amount and come out pretty nice on their financials. Then that debt collector could sell the note to another debt collector who would also issue a 1099 and it goes on and on.

Nope. You cannot create income out of nothing -- well, Enron and WorldCom can but normal people can't. If the debt buyer did what you describe, how would they make a profit? Where would the cash come from? Ultimately, all profit comes from cash rather than just moving numbers around on an accounting spreadsheet.

The debt buyer does not generate income when they issue the 1099 -- actually they generate a loss. The only way the debt buyer makes money is when the debtor pays.

All corporations basically keep two different sets of books -- one for taxes and one for accounting. That is because tax events are different that accounting events.

The financial relationship between the debtor and the creditor is independent of the relationship between the taxpayer and the IRS -- different rules for each relationship.

Make more sense?


I need to clarify I have absolutely no problem with an original creditor issuing a 1099. I see huge problems with potential for abuse if debt collectors issue them.

Debt collectors do not issue 1099s. Creditors issue 1099s -- that can be the original creditor or a debt buyer.

I know you use debt collector to mean debt buyer. The 2006 change in the Tax Code requires these entities to issue 1099s and makes them subject to the same rules as a real "bank".

Maybe you will get lucky and a debt buyer will issue you a 1099 in error. Remember what I said about the statutory penalty of $5000 for a fraudulent 1099? $5000 for messing up is a lot more painful than violating FDCPA. I know they are confused and m guess is they are proceeding cautiously.
 
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annajosie

Member
Debt Guy,

I read your message and it was very informative. However, reading it gave me a headache (lol) My question is, if you owe many creditors, or debt collectors, can you expect to receive a lot of 1099C forms? If this is the case, then isn't it true that if you file bankruptcy, you do not have to pay the taxes on these debts?

If I received a bunch of 1099Cs in the mail, I believe I'd be dancing down "bankruptcy lane".
 

tranquility

Senior Member
Maybe I'm reading too much into this. It seems as if a debt collector could buy up lots of bad debts and simply issue 1099s for the original amount and come out pretty nice on their financials. Then that debt collector could sell the note to another debt collector who would also issue a 1099 and it goes on and on.

Nope. You cannot create income out of nothing -- well, Enron and WorldCom can but normal people can't. If the debt buyer did what you describe, how would they make a profit? Where would the cash come from? Ultimately, all profit comes from cash rather than just moving numbers around on an accounting spreadsheet.

The debt buyer does not generate income when they issue the 1099 -- actually they generate a loss. The only way the debt buyer makes money is when the debtor pays.
I think the abuse of repeated 1099s the poster referred to gets to the fact there is more than one debtor in a debt collection business. Some will pay and some will not. Thats how the debt collectors make money--from the people who paid. If they could deduct as a loss the entire amount of the 1099, that would be very sweet as they could shelter a lot of money with little cost. And, if they could sell the debt again to another, and the other could shelter that full amount rather than the amount paid, double sweet. Finally, with all this debt sitting out there which is never paid floating around, regular businesses can buy thousands of dollars of debt for pennies, issue 1099s and shelter thousands of dollars of income. Tripple, no...infinity sweet.

Clearly this is not the case. The accounting for debt and the book effects of having it be uncollectable can be complex. While I do this on trusts (with SCIN) at times, I don't have the experience to just know the answer and I'm not in the mood to go through the code to say why it ain't so as . I'm just here to say, it ain't so.
 

justalayman

Senior Member
also, if as you say the debt that became income can still be a debt, how could it ever be claimed as income? Income is income and debt is debt.[/B]

You are trying to engage me in a semantics game and I don't have time for that. I know where you are going. You are trying to argue that once the taxes have been paid, the debt no longer exists and thus the creditor has no right to collect. Right?
Not intentionally although that is what it seems. I just have a difficult time flopping it back and forth from debt to income and such. I see the taxation as actually an improper action although I do understand why it is there.



I know this is convoluted and a new concept to you. Please don't fuss with me about it. I did not make it up. Take it up with your congressweasel if you don't like it.
My apologies. Didn't mean to sound like I am laying it on your shoulders.


Logically? Unless it is mandatory and the amount repaid can be deducted from the taxpayers income, then what happens is the taxpayer pays taxes on the money as income AND the still must repay the money but not be allowed to use it as a deduction.

I use the phrase "logically" because that is to me the logical sequence of events. By using that language I am implying that I have no specific knowledge of the internal procedures of a creditor nor have I been party to any of the communication between the IRS and 1099 reporters (I am sure that it is all available on the IRS website).

It is certainly not logical that a taxpayer would pay taxes on the income and then not be allowed some sort of deduction or offset if he later paid the debt.
that is probably my only real stumbling point. I am not educated enough in this area to know how ting do work but I believe that if the money can be taxed as income at some point aling with the issuance of the 1099's and all, I believe there should me a mechanism in place that allows, no, requires, the money repaid to be a direct adjustment to gross income. Maybe there is and it actually happens this way. I don't know.

But, I think I said all that. I can't tell if you are expressing frustration or chastising me for not knowing exactly how it is handled by the IRS.
Me chastise you? Absolutely not. You are much more educated on this matter than I and chastising you for not knowing something would be the old pot calling the kettle black thing.

Not really frustration either, simply ignorance expressed poorly.


So, is there any mandatory and regulatory requirements for such actions? If not, then THAT is an unfair taking.

I don't think I said that. But, yes the tax code is quite explicit for when the 1099c must be issued.
No, I said that. I understand the taxation issue. I just believe that there needs to be mandatory action to reverse the debt classified as income situation back to a income deduction if/when it is repaid. Maybe there is. That was more or less the question hidden in there.


thanks for what you haved taken the time to explain though.
 

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