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A family court (civil action) judge issued "show cause order" directing a Father to respond as to who he may have violated one of the Judge's orders.

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Pennsylvania:

A family court (civil action) judge issued "show cause order" directing a Father to respond as to who he may have violated one of the Judge's orders. There was NO petition or motion nor any pleadings filed by the Mother or Mother's attorney. Father is pro se. Is that permitted, that the Judge issues a "Sua Sponte" order for "show cause" to respond within 20 days in writing as to WHY one party violated the Judge's prior order? Is that legal? No one asked the Judge! There is no dispute before the Judge, yet the Judge brings on this dispute to the parties himself. How so? Pa R.C.P do not address this.
 


Just Blue

Senior Member
Pennsylvania:

A family court (civil action) judge issued "show cause order" directing a Father to respond as to who he may have violated one of the Judge's orders. There was NO petition or motion nor any pleadings filed by the Mother or Mother's attorney. Father is pro se. Is that permitted, that the Judge issues a "Sua Sponte" order for "show cause" to respond within 20 days in writing as to WHY one party violated the Judge's prior order? Is that legal? No one asked the Judge! There is no dispute before the Judge, yet the Judge brings on this dispute to the parties himself. How so? Pa R.C.P do not address this.
Perhaps...What specific order was violated or he thinks may have been violated?
 
Please have one of the involved parties consult with legal counsel.
Always an option, but costly. I am savvy with laws and procedures. The Judge's role is to be a disinterested third-party to decide issues on dispute. No party filed for contempt, so there's nothing for the Judge to decide. Yes?
 

Zigner

Senior Member, Non-Attorney
Always an option, but costly. I am savvy with laws and procedures. The Judge's role is to be a disinterested third-party to decide issues on dispute. No party filed for contempt, so there's nothing for the Judge to decide. Yes?
This is none of your legal business. Being "savvy" doesn't give you the right to give specific legal advice to other parties about their legal matters.
 

Just Blue

Senior Member
I am the involved party myself... so this is pointless: "Please have one of the involved parties consult with legal counsel. "
sigh...
You posted your 1st post in the 3rd party. It is perfectly understandable that Zig and I thought you were not one of the legal parties in the case.

If you can't post what part of the order was thought to be violated perhaps you should seek an Attorneys advice in your area.
 

stealth2

Under the Radar Member
I'm going to "assume" that if a judge did it? Then s/he can legally do so. I doubt anyone can provide you with more detailed information without your providing context.
 
I'm going to "assume" that if a judge did it? Then s/he can legally do so. I doubt anyone can provide you with more detailed information without your providing context.
It is my understanding of the law, ONE of the parties must file a properly plead filing/petition/motion against the OTHER, to be held in contempt. Without, the Judge cannot act on something not before him...
 

stealth2

Under the Radar Member
It is my understanding of the law, ONE of the parties must file a properly plead filing/petition/motion against the OTHER, to be held in contempt. Without, the Judge cannot act on something not before him...
Well, then. I guess you know best. Carry on.
 

LdiJ

Senior Member
It is my understanding of the law, ONE of the parties must file a properly plead filing/petition/motion against the OTHER, to be held in contempt. Without, the Judge cannot act on something not before him...
If you want advice, give context. However, I suspect that you are incorrect.
 

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