What is the name of your state? Georgia
I posted in Dec. and got some good answers from HomeGuru.
Here is the post:
https://forum.freeadvice.com/showthread.php?threadid=124602&highlight=DGO1223
We did consult a lawyer on this, but we also give the other parties the past couple of months to cooperate in this. Nothing came of it.
Spoke to the lawyer last week, and he advised us to try and talk to the other parties and see where they stood. If that did not work, then we could file action against them. Of course it could span out over a year & cost $5,000 - $10,000 in legal fees. As it is, we have nothing, and felt we had to try.
Met with the others last week, and they basically stormed out of the restaurant when we pointed out they were due 1/16 - 1/18 of the proceeds of sale. Claimed they were due 1/2!
Now, I have read many posts on here, and came across Adverse Possession, but reading more closely, it did not seem that would apply.
Then read about Joint Tenancy & Tenancy in Common. Thought there MIGHT be something applicable there. Not so sure.
Details:
1. Stepfather married lady, each owned 1/2 of their home. (1957)
2. Wife died w/out will, her 1/2 passed to HER 5 surviving children. (1986) 3 sons had pre-deceased her years before.
3. 4 of these step-children signed their part over to Stepfather. Remaining step-daughter refused. (1986)
4. Step-father married OUR Mother. (1991) Made improvements, paid taxes, etc. over the years. Sometime during this time Step-daughter died; her portion goes to her surviving 3 children.
5. Stepfather signed over his portion to US in 1998, we agreed to pay taxes, ins., do any improvments. We have done so.
6. Stepfather died (2001, OUR Mother same year.)
We knew nothing about the above Step-daughter's portion of property.
Now, of course they demand 1/2 or no sale. Would any judge think they are entitled to that?? Just curious. Lawyer also mentioned something about Stepfather maybe due a "Child's Portion" when 1st wife died.
Is partition of property still our best option here? Or any of the above mentioned actions? We meet w/ this Lawyer soon this week, and wondered if there are others ways to solve this.
Sorry this is so long & complicated.
Signed,
DGO1223.....(or, broke in GA!)
I posted in Dec. and got some good answers from HomeGuru.
Here is the post:
https://forum.freeadvice.com/showthread.php?threadid=124602&highlight=DGO1223
We did consult a lawyer on this, but we also give the other parties the past couple of months to cooperate in this. Nothing came of it.
Spoke to the lawyer last week, and he advised us to try and talk to the other parties and see where they stood. If that did not work, then we could file action against them. Of course it could span out over a year & cost $5,000 - $10,000 in legal fees. As it is, we have nothing, and felt we had to try.
Met with the others last week, and they basically stormed out of the restaurant when we pointed out they were due 1/16 - 1/18 of the proceeds of sale. Claimed they were due 1/2!
Now, I have read many posts on here, and came across Adverse Possession, but reading more closely, it did not seem that would apply.
Then read about Joint Tenancy & Tenancy in Common. Thought there MIGHT be something applicable there. Not so sure.
Details:
1. Stepfather married lady, each owned 1/2 of their home. (1957)
2. Wife died w/out will, her 1/2 passed to HER 5 surviving children. (1986) 3 sons had pre-deceased her years before.
3. 4 of these step-children signed their part over to Stepfather. Remaining step-daughter refused. (1986)
4. Step-father married OUR Mother. (1991) Made improvements, paid taxes, etc. over the years. Sometime during this time Step-daughter died; her portion goes to her surviving 3 children.
5. Stepfather signed over his portion to US in 1998, we agreed to pay taxes, ins., do any improvments. We have done so.
6. Stepfather died (2001, OUR Mother same year.)
We knew nothing about the above Step-daughter's portion of property.
Now, of course they demand 1/2 or no sale. Would any judge think they are entitled to that?? Just curious. Lawyer also mentioned something about Stepfather maybe due a "Child's Portion" when 1st wife died.
Is partition of property still our best option here? Or any of the above mentioned actions? We meet w/ this Lawyer soon this week, and wondered if there are others ways to solve this.
Sorry this is so long & complicated.
Signed,
DGO1223.....(or, broke in GA!)