I currently live in FL. I am considering a divorce due to verbal abuse. We own a home which was purchased 3 years prior to us getting married. But both my name and his name is on the house 50/50. There was no written agreement or anything of who will get what is we split. My question is this....there is about $100k in the house right now between money put down and equity made. Would the house be considered marital assets since it was owned by us both when we weren’t married or no? And second, I would like to go after half of the amount. I am hoping for it to be split equally. He actually told me the other day that I need to leave the house because se, he is the main owner ( which there is no main owner we are both listed the same) Do I have any chance of getting half the equity if he put more money down at the time we purchased the home he has the bank statements to prove it? And is anything affected since this was purchased prior to marriage?