or as happened when another ball player hit a record homerun and their was a fight for the ball? At what point did anybody "own" the ball and who is liable for taxes?
I don't know offhand. I know there was a case decided on the issue of ownership a few years ago. If I'm not mistaken, one person had the ball under control and the other took it from his grasp. Obviously, there were factual issues to be determined, but the court had to apply the facts to the law. I'm sure you could find it somewhere on the internet as to how it was determined.
Info edit:
The decision in the case I was thinking of is at:
http://journalism.berkeley.edu/projects/scramble/judge_decision.pdf
what if a guy catches the ball and then gives it to another (say, a kid with puppy dog eyes). Who owes the taxes since it was "owned" by the first catcher and then given to the kid (with puppy dog eyes)? Maybe when he sells the ball, he can get those fixed.
I would say the first with a gift to the second. For some reason, if the person threw the ball back some lawyers felt there should be no income at all. But, I didn't get too far into the reasoning. It was only an esoteric discussion where I had little interest.
Respect and admiration are reasons for a gift.
Maybe so, but we're talking tax law. In tax law, the black letter law is "disinterested generosity". Each word has case law to give it meaning and substance. Together, even more so. Books have been written on what they meant. Especially when you start talking about estate taxes and complex trusts (Not in the accounting sense, but in a practical one.), the meaning gets very detailed. Many, many dollars can ride on if something is a gift or not.