What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? Louisiana
Can any creditor in Louisiana, after having received a judgment, take that judgment to the debtor's bank and deduct funds from a debtor's checking account? This question stems from a situation wherein a cousin of mine went to the drive-thru of a local bank to handle some bit of business, only to be told that "the account had been closed". He sat there and argued with the teller for a good five minutes, ranting that the account had NOT been closed, until finally, at my prodding, going into the bank to see what was what. The teller inside said that the account had been closed because "the exact amount of money in the account had been deducted, resulting in an automatic closure of the account", stating further that "if one cent had been left in the bank, or had a negative balance been left in, anywhere from a negative balance of one cent on up, that the account would still be open". Well, all this served to do was to make my cousin change his rant to "Well, I didn't deduct all the money from my account, so it's NOT CLOSED!"
Turns out that he had had a tax lien for quite some time, no telling how long, and the government simply came in and razooed all of his money from his account. (I assume "tax lien" is the correct term...some federal income tax documentation evidently giving the government to right to snatch that money right out of his account).
Now, I know for a fact that happened, because I was sitting right there by him through all of this, but I have no idea if that same sort of thing can happen with a "regular" judgment. I assumed that if someone held a judgment against a debtor here in Louisiana, that the same thing could happen, and that the creditor could, armed with that judgment, approach the bank and remove funds from the debtor's account, removing funds up to the amount to satisfy the judgment, that is. I started thinking, though, that I may have given someone the wrong information, however, and that maybe this happened to my cousin because the debt involved federal taxes.
So, can a creditor use a "simple" judgment to deduct funds from a debtir's checking account, or must something else be used for the debtor to to accomplish that, say maybe getting a further order from the court directing the bank to surrender the funds?
Oh, and for the purposes of this query, there is no bankruptcy involved.
Thanks!What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)?
Can any creditor in Louisiana, after having received a judgment, take that judgment to the debtor's bank and deduct funds from a debtor's checking account? This question stems from a situation wherein a cousin of mine went to the drive-thru of a local bank to handle some bit of business, only to be told that "the account had been closed". He sat there and argued with the teller for a good five minutes, ranting that the account had NOT been closed, until finally, at my prodding, going into the bank to see what was what. The teller inside said that the account had been closed because "the exact amount of money in the account had been deducted, resulting in an automatic closure of the account", stating further that "if one cent had been left in the bank, or had a negative balance been left in, anywhere from a negative balance of one cent on up, that the account would still be open". Well, all this served to do was to make my cousin change his rant to "Well, I didn't deduct all the money from my account, so it's NOT CLOSED!"
Turns out that he had had a tax lien for quite some time, no telling how long, and the government simply came in and razooed all of his money from his account. (I assume "tax lien" is the correct term...some federal income tax documentation evidently giving the government to right to snatch that money right out of his account).
Now, I know for a fact that happened, because I was sitting right there by him through all of this, but I have no idea if that same sort of thing can happen with a "regular" judgment. I assumed that if someone held a judgment against a debtor here in Louisiana, that the same thing could happen, and that the creditor could, armed with that judgment, approach the bank and remove funds from the debtor's account, removing funds up to the amount to satisfy the judgment, that is. I started thinking, though, that I may have given someone the wrong information, however, and that maybe this happened to my cousin because the debt involved federal taxes.
So, can a creditor use a "simple" judgment to deduct funds from a debtir's checking account, or must something else be used for the debtor to to accomplish that, say maybe getting a further order from the court directing the bank to surrender the funds?
Oh, and for the purposes of this query, there is no bankruptcy involved.
Thanks!What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)?