R
RockHauler
Guest
I have been involved with a man for the last 3 1/2 years. He has been going through a divore for the last 4. We lived in AZ and moved to TX. The court in AZ allowed his wifes motion to enjoin me in the divorce as long as she filed and/or served whatever is necessary. I was legally a resident of TX when the AZ court made its ruling, I have not received any notice from the court, I have no "real" property in AZ, I have not been served with anything from TX or AZ, she has sent me papers for discovery, etc. but I don't think it's legal if she hasn't gone through the TX courts to enjoin me. Am I correct?