C
cpgar
Guest
What is the name of your state? Arizona
I just found out that my 2002 BMW M3 I purchased for 44K from a private party in California this past June 2003 was in an accident before I purchsed it (accident occurred 3/2003). I am very angry.
The seller (who was the origional owner) lied and misrepresented the vehicle to me. He flat out lied to me verbally about the car's history. I also have him stating this in writing that the car has never been in an accident.
To me, the car is now damaged goods and I no longer want it and will sell it. However, I know that someone else will not pay what I will want due to the accident history and I will lose out. This certainly is not fair.
So my question is whether I can sue the origional owner for my loss. I have read about "inherent diminished value" and feel it applies to my case. If so, would I have to seek an attorney in California or Arizona?
I am open to any and all suggestions or advice on how I should proceed.
Thanks!
I just found out that my 2002 BMW M3 I purchased for 44K from a private party in California this past June 2003 was in an accident before I purchsed it (accident occurred 3/2003). I am very angry.
The seller (who was the origional owner) lied and misrepresented the vehicle to me. He flat out lied to me verbally about the car's history. I also have him stating this in writing that the car has never been in an accident.
To me, the car is now damaged goods and I no longer want it and will sell it. However, I know that someone else will not pay what I will want due to the accident history and I will lose out. This certainly is not fair.
So my question is whether I can sue the origional owner for my loss. I have read about "inherent diminished value" and feel it applies to my case. If so, would I have to seek an attorney in California or Arizona?
I am open to any and all suggestions or advice on how I should proceed.
Thanks!