What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)?
-Duluth, Minnesota
Okay, so here's the situation. Myself, and 5 other roommates rent a 6 BR home on the outskirts of the University of Minnesota - Duluth campus. The landlord is a 1 man company, and it's currently the second year that we've been in the house.
THE PROBLEM:
The house we live in is an 1800's victorian mansion. The entrance has a set of two doors which all 4 doors have hand-made glass panels as their center piece. A couple weeks ago, one of the roommates was in a rush to get to class when he tripped over a shoe in the entry-way causing him to catch himself on the closed door. While doing so, his body weight shifted on to the door causing the glass on the door he hit to crack. The crack is minor and it's only on the bottom 1/4 of the glass.
Keep in mind that the entrance to the house has a set of 4 doors. The 2 that lead in from outside enter into a small entry way which is where you find the other 2 doors that lead into the interior of the house. The cracked glass is on 1 of the 2 doors that lead into the MAIN interior of the house.
SO RIGHT NOW, ONLY 1 DOOR HAS DAMAGED GLASS. EVERY OTHER DOOR HAS NO DEFECT.
OUR LANDLORD:
Our landlord recently inspected the door and to our knowledge the glass specialist thought it would be best to keep the glass in. Considering nothing is falling out and it is still in tact. Two weeks went by without hearing again from our landlord and now today he has reached out to us confirming the price of the repair is going to $2,100.
His plan is to replace the damaged glass with a replica made today(since hand made glass on doors is not a thing anymore) and he also wants replace the glass on the door that is directly next to it(not damaged whatsoever).
THE QUESTION:
Are we reliable for paying for the replacement of the door that no damage was done to? We all understand the replacing of the damanged glass, but why would we have to pay for something that is only to please him? Our lease clearly states that any repairs due to wear-and-tear or any home improvements would be paid for by the landlord. Wouldn't replacing glass that is not damaged at all be considered a home improvement?
-Duluth, Minnesota
Okay, so here's the situation. Myself, and 5 other roommates rent a 6 BR home on the outskirts of the University of Minnesota - Duluth campus. The landlord is a 1 man company, and it's currently the second year that we've been in the house.
THE PROBLEM:
The house we live in is an 1800's victorian mansion. The entrance has a set of two doors which all 4 doors have hand-made glass panels as their center piece. A couple weeks ago, one of the roommates was in a rush to get to class when he tripped over a shoe in the entry-way causing him to catch himself on the closed door. While doing so, his body weight shifted on to the door causing the glass on the door he hit to crack. The crack is minor and it's only on the bottom 1/4 of the glass.
Keep in mind that the entrance to the house has a set of 4 doors. The 2 that lead in from outside enter into a small entry way which is where you find the other 2 doors that lead into the interior of the house. The cracked glass is on 1 of the 2 doors that lead into the MAIN interior of the house.
SO RIGHT NOW, ONLY 1 DOOR HAS DAMAGED GLASS. EVERY OTHER DOOR HAS NO DEFECT.
OUR LANDLORD:
Our landlord recently inspected the door and to our knowledge the glass specialist thought it would be best to keep the glass in. Considering nothing is falling out and it is still in tact. Two weeks went by without hearing again from our landlord and now today he has reached out to us confirming the price of the repair is going to $2,100.
His plan is to replace the damaged glass with a replica made today(since hand made glass on doors is not a thing anymore) and he also wants replace the glass on the door that is directly next to it(not damaged whatsoever).
THE QUESTION:
Are we reliable for paying for the replacement of the door that no damage was done to? We all understand the replacing of the damanged glass, but why would we have to pay for something that is only to please him? Our lease clearly states that any repairs due to wear-and-tear or any home improvements would be paid for by the landlord. Wouldn't replacing glass that is not damaged at all be considered a home improvement?