J
JFoster
Guest
My ex-husband bought a large truck and I co-signed for it. He then traded the truck in for a second truck of equal value without my knowledge or my signature while we were still married. The second truck got repossessed by the creditor because he defaulted on the payments.
Now a year after our divorce the creditor says I am liable for the *second loan* that I did not sign for. He claims the reason I am liable is that the first loan that I did co-sign carrys over ("continuation" his words) to the second loan which I did not sign.
The creditor recently sent me a copy of the *second loan* dated 7/30/99 signed by my ex-husband (not signed by me) with a copy of the *first loan* guaranty page dated 6/15/99 stapled to the second loan.
It seems the creditor is mixing the two contract pages claiming "continuation" makes me liable for the second loan regardless that the second loan was not signed by me.
The second loan required my ex-husbands signature. If the second loan required my ex-husbands signature, then it stands to reason that in order for me to be liable for the second loan, as the creditor is claiming, then I would have to had co-sign for the second loan as well, which I did not.
Am I liable or not for this second loan if I did not co-sign for it?
State we live in during prior marriage: New Hampshire.
Thanks in advance for your response.
Respectfully,
- JFoster
Now a year after our divorce the creditor says I am liable for the *second loan* that I did not sign for. He claims the reason I am liable is that the first loan that I did co-sign carrys over ("continuation" his words) to the second loan which I did not sign.
The creditor recently sent me a copy of the *second loan* dated 7/30/99 signed by my ex-husband (not signed by me) with a copy of the *first loan* guaranty page dated 6/15/99 stapled to the second loan.
It seems the creditor is mixing the two contract pages claiming "continuation" makes me liable for the second loan regardless that the second loan was not signed by me.
The second loan required my ex-husbands signature. If the second loan required my ex-husbands signature, then it stands to reason that in order for me to be liable for the second loan, as the creditor is claiming, then I would have to had co-sign for the second loan as well, which I did not.
Am I liable or not for this second loan if I did not co-sign for it?
State we live in during prior marriage: New Hampshire.
Thanks in advance for your response.
Respectfully,
- JFoster