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I am writing from Minnesota. My husband was previously married and when he was divorced, his ex wife took her maiden name back. More than 3 weeks after her divorce, she manipulated my husband (her ex) to take over payments on lon that she could not pay. He does not remember signing any agreement with her, but she faxed us a copy of the alleged agreement right after she found out we were married. The thing is, on the paper she faxed (she is a paralegal and prepared it herself "Agreement Subsequent to Issuance of Findings of Fact, Conclusions of Law, Order for Judgement and Judgement and Decree" ) She signed her first name and my husbands last name. This was 3 weeks after the jjudge ordered that she was to hereforth be know as her maiden name. Now, she is saying that the paper is not valid because it is not legally signed and the item actually belongs to her (and she wants it back). Is that the case? We have the loan already almost paid off, that is why she wants to pull this! But, at the same time, we don't want the item any longer (she doesn't either, but she is really angry that we got married) we are perfectly content to let her have it... but she is insisting we pay it off first! Who is right. Is the document valid even though she signed it with a name that is NOT her legal name?

[Edited by jaegirl on 06-12-2001 at 03:56 PM]

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