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Changes to Georgia Title Ad Valorem Tax

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Godzuki01

New member
I moved to Georgia as a new resident around this time last year. Under their old TAVT law a new resident had to pay a 7 percent tax on the current estimated value of their vehicle in order to change the tags and title over to Georgia from another state. The law also allowed for half of the amount to be paid at the time of applying and the other half to be paid within 12 months. This law has since changed and I am including a link of the changes. The updated law states that new residents to Georgia now only have to pay a 3 percent tax. The last two lines of this new law state that it goes into effect on July 1, 2019 and that all laws and parts of laws in conflict with this Act are repealed. I can not find anywhere in this new law that talks about someone having already paid half of the old amount still owing it because they started the process prior to the change. Can someone here please help me out. Thanks

http://www.legis.ga.gov/Legislation/20172018/178893.pdf
 


PayrollHRGuy

Senior Member
I can't find anything in the law that would make the reduction retroactive. This means that you accrued the entire 7% the debt when you moved and registered your car. If you paid 1/2 of the debt at that time you ow the other half 12 months later.
 

Godzuki01

New member
I can't find anything in the law that would make the reduction retroactive. This means that you accrued the entire 7% the debt when you moved and registered your car. If you paid 1/2 of the debt at that time you ow the other half 12 months later.
I did not see anything like that either...that's why I was wondering about it because the new law neither makes a statement of retroacivity or a statement about inclusion or exclusion based on the previous version. Seems like it should have been addressed in some way due to the fact that the last line of the new law repeals everything in conflict with it.
 

Zigner

Senior Member, Non-Attorney
I did not see anything like that either...that's why I was wondering about it because the new law neither makes a statement of retroacivity or a statement about inclusion or exclusion based on the previous version. Seems like it should have been addressed in some way due to the fact that the last line of the new law repeals everything in conflict with it.
The fact that it's not mentioned means it's not retroactive. There's no need to mention it.
 

PayrollHRGuy

Senior Member
I did not see anything like that either...that's why I was wondering about it because the new law neither makes a statement of retroacivity or a statement about inclusion or exclusion based on the previous version. Seems like it should have been addressed in some way due to the fact that the last line of the new law repeals everything in conflict with it.
I understand your point but if it worked as you want it do they would have to refund everyone that has ever paid the tax the 4% difference.
 

Godzuki01

New member
I understand your point but if it worked as you want it do they would have to refund everyone that has ever paid the tax the 4% difference.
No, obviously not. You read alot in the news about Student Loan debt forgiveness and how if Congress or Trump changed the law and cancelled student loans, the people paying on them now would catch a break, but those who have already paid theirs off, don't get a refund. I guess that's how I'm looking at this. Obviously, I'm no lawyer....just came to ask a question.
 

PayrollHRGuy

Senior Member
No, obviously not. You read alot in the news about Student Loan debt forgiveness and how if Congress or Trump changed the law and cancelled student loans, the people paying on them now would catch a break, but those who have already paid theirs off, don't get a refund. I guess that's how I'm looking at this. Obviously, I'm no lawyer....just came to ask a question.
I understand but this isn't the same thing.
 

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