What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)?The city that I work for in Alabama has purchased land with a 2 story single family dwelling on it. Out of the blue an employee is living in this house. The house was not advertised to be for rent . No one knows for sure if the employee is even paying rent at all. My question is ---Can the city do this without violating the fair housing act? People of color were not given any opportunity at all to apply for this property.It seems very unfair to me, but I dont know if it would be considered unethical.
Why do you feel that the city should have advertised this property for rent before allowing a city employee to occupy it? On what basis do you believe that the city is actually renting it out at all, and not just allowing the employee to occupy it under some other arrangement?
Last, but certainly NOT least, what does this have to do with "people of color"? You seem eager to cry "DISCRIMINATION" when you have no clue under what circumstances the employee occupant even took possession of the property. You don't even know that it is being rented out - just that some random employee moved into it.
Sounds to me like you are bitter because you somehow felt like YOU should have had the opportunity to live in that house, and you feel robbed because no one even asked you. Before you go running around, crying foul about things you appear to know nothing about, I would suggest you get your facts and details straight so you at least know what questions you need to be asking.