ShanahBanana
Junior Member
What is the name of your state? Tx
Hi,
We're buying a home and closing in just over a week. I have a question though so I'm not surprised at closing for some reason.
We're going thru a local bank loan officer for the loan and she said it was a conventional loan (100% financing) and the GFE also says "CONV PURCH GFE" on part of it at the top. My question is- is a fannie mae loan really a conventional loan or considered a government type loan?
Seems like a simple question but I really can't find out for sure on any searches I have done here or elsewhere. I'm curious simply because I want to make sure the loan officer has given me correct information. She said that the PMI (private mortgage insurance) could be requested off our monthly mortgage pymt once the LTV was at 80% or below. However, I read elsewhere that on "government loans" you cannot request that to be removed and must pay it the entire length of the loan?
The only reason I question whether what she's telling me is true or not is because she also told us that we could do the loan on 30yr note (versus 20yr note because that would make our monthly pymt so high that we may have problems with it in the future should anything happen to our income in any way where it was lessened quite a bit or something) and if we really wanted to pay it off in 20yrs (which we do- because we don't want to be paying this monthly mortgage pymt until we're 69/70yrs old) that all we'd have to do is pay one extra house pymt per year and it would be paid off in 20yrs. Well I'm not sure that's the truth because I found a calculator that allows you to put in the terms/etc. of your loan then will calculate if you added either monthly to the principal or one pymt per year/etc. If I put in one extra house pymt per year- it only knocks off between 6-7yrs off the note, not 10yrs.
So anyway- the reason I ask about the fannie mae is because in the GFE at the bottom as a "reference" or item no area- it lists Fannie Mae with address/etc. for reference to line 805 (which on the GFE is where the processing fee, underwriting fee, etc. is listed). So that makes me think this is a Fannie Mae loan and here are my questions again:
1) is Fannie Mae a government loan or conventional?
2) if it's a government type loan- does this mean we really cannot ask for the PMI to be removed at a later date once we have reached under 80% on the LTV?
And lastly- just to make sure she has told me correctly. From what I am reading online it appears that there is a lot of confusion, even among posters on this board, on what the VALUE is in the LTV figures. for instance- is the value the original amount of the loan? Or is the appraised value at the beginning of the mortgage? Or is it the lesser of the two? The reason I ask is because the home we're buying is purchase price 200k, the appraisal came in at 220k, and our loan officer is saying we can request the PMI to be removed once our principal balance on this loan is at 176k or lower. Is she telling the truth? Or is it really going to have to be at 80% of the original loan (200K) and that means we'd have to have the principal down to 160k before we can request this? OR does it mean that once we "think" we're at 80% LTV that we get another appraisal (either on our own or thru lender- not sure which. original appraisal was thru lender btw) and whatever amount it appraises at THEN would be the "value" part of the LTV to try to get under 80% to get rid of the PMI pymt?
Any help you can give with these questions is very much appreciated, in advance.
Hi,
We're buying a home and closing in just over a week. I have a question though so I'm not surprised at closing for some reason.
We're going thru a local bank loan officer for the loan and she said it was a conventional loan (100% financing) and the GFE also says "CONV PURCH GFE" on part of it at the top. My question is- is a fannie mae loan really a conventional loan or considered a government type loan?
Seems like a simple question but I really can't find out for sure on any searches I have done here or elsewhere. I'm curious simply because I want to make sure the loan officer has given me correct information. She said that the PMI (private mortgage insurance) could be requested off our monthly mortgage pymt once the LTV was at 80% or below. However, I read elsewhere that on "government loans" you cannot request that to be removed and must pay it the entire length of the loan?
The only reason I question whether what she's telling me is true or not is because she also told us that we could do the loan on 30yr note (versus 20yr note because that would make our monthly pymt so high that we may have problems with it in the future should anything happen to our income in any way where it was lessened quite a bit or something) and if we really wanted to pay it off in 20yrs (which we do- because we don't want to be paying this monthly mortgage pymt until we're 69/70yrs old) that all we'd have to do is pay one extra house pymt per year and it would be paid off in 20yrs. Well I'm not sure that's the truth because I found a calculator that allows you to put in the terms/etc. of your loan then will calculate if you added either monthly to the principal or one pymt per year/etc. If I put in one extra house pymt per year- it only knocks off between 6-7yrs off the note, not 10yrs.
So anyway- the reason I ask about the fannie mae is because in the GFE at the bottom as a "reference" or item no area- it lists Fannie Mae with address/etc. for reference to line 805 (which on the GFE is where the processing fee, underwriting fee, etc. is listed). So that makes me think this is a Fannie Mae loan and here are my questions again:
1) is Fannie Mae a government loan or conventional?
2) if it's a government type loan- does this mean we really cannot ask for the PMI to be removed at a later date once we have reached under 80% on the LTV?
And lastly- just to make sure she has told me correctly. From what I am reading online it appears that there is a lot of confusion, even among posters on this board, on what the VALUE is in the LTV figures. for instance- is the value the original amount of the loan? Or is the appraised value at the beginning of the mortgage? Or is it the lesser of the two? The reason I ask is because the home we're buying is purchase price 200k, the appraisal came in at 220k, and our loan officer is saying we can request the PMI to be removed once our principal balance on this loan is at 176k or lower. Is she telling the truth? Or is it really going to have to be at 80% of the original loan (200K) and that means we'd have to have the principal down to 160k before we can request this? OR does it mean that once we "think" we're at 80% LTV that we get another appraisal (either on our own or thru lender- not sure which. original appraisal was thru lender btw) and whatever amount it appraises at THEN would be the "value" part of the LTV to try to get under 80% to get rid of the PMI pymt?
Any help you can give with these questions is very much appreciated, in advance.