Summary of events:
Ex-Husband and I divorced in 2007 and divorce decree stated that I got the house and would assume the mortgage payments. The deed was transferred to my name. The mortgage was in his name only and he had taken out an $11,000 2nd mortgage against it in 2004. The first mortgage is not in default as I have been making the payments.
Ex-Husband filed for bankruptcy in 2013 and the lender never contested the 2nd mortgage and it was discharged.
In June of this year I was notified that my home was going to be sold at a Sheriff’s Auction as the 2nd mortgagee had commenced foreclosure proceedings for $26,000 and never notified me or my ex-husband until the sheriff’s sale was scheduled.
Is this scenario even possible considering that the deed to the property is in my name and the home equity loan that they are foreclosing on was discharged by the bankruptcy court?
Also, the divorce decree states that my ex-husband cannot bankrupt any of his legal obligations related to our marriage. Wouldn’t this include the 2nd mortgage? Why are they not going after him or going through the bankruptcy court?
Ex-Husband and I divorced in 2007 and divorce decree stated that I got the house and would assume the mortgage payments. The deed was transferred to my name. The mortgage was in his name only and he had taken out an $11,000 2nd mortgage against it in 2004. The first mortgage is not in default as I have been making the payments.
Ex-Husband filed for bankruptcy in 2013 and the lender never contested the 2nd mortgage and it was discharged.
In June of this year I was notified that my home was going to be sold at a Sheriff’s Auction as the 2nd mortgagee had commenced foreclosure proceedings for $26,000 and never notified me or my ex-husband until the sheriff’s sale was scheduled.
Is this scenario even possible considering that the deed to the property is in my name and the home equity loan that they are foreclosing on was discharged by the bankruptcy court?
Also, the divorce decree states that my ex-husband cannot bankrupt any of his legal obligations related to our marriage. Wouldn’t this include the 2nd mortgage? Why are they not going after him or going through the bankruptcy court?