I live in Oregon. My spouse and I got divorced over two years ago. As part of the divorce my spouse was awarded the home but he would have to buy me out within four years. He also moved out and I was granted the right to stay in the house in the decree for these four years. Now he is saying he no longer wants the house to avoid the buy out. I am okay with this but how do I proceed forward to now get the house solely in my name when the divorce decree has him getting it? He never refinanced it or had my name removed during this time so my name is still on the deed as is his.
Obviously the answer to your basic question is that the ex would convey title to you the same as to any person or entity.
But what arouses my curiosity is knowing who is responsible for the drafting, submission and/or consenting to the entry of a decree of divorce in which the marital home was awarded to one spouse; that spouse it denied its use and the income from its use for as much as four years; yet two years hence the other spouse still appears as an owner of record!
Why wasn't the decree - or at least an abstract of the order vesting sole title in the ex - placed of record, and/or you were ordered to quitclaim over your ownership and that instrument recorded? Whose decision was it to so hobble the ex's ownership?
Also, I would be interested in knowing (among other significant things) what the decree has to say regarding the mechanics to be followed to implement this particular clause, "
but he would have to buy me out within four years". Setting aside the complex details in fixing a price and terms of payment, interest, the treatment of credits for the mortgage payments, taxes, insurance, needed repairs, etc., etc., what does the decree have to say in the contingency that he should fail to buy you out within four years?
Hopefully the lawyer you select to guide you in procuring sole ownership of the home will have had no hand in the manner it was so poorly treated in the divorce proceedings.