What is the name of your state? CA
Are there any negative consequences I should be aware of if I get a default judgment of legal separation from CA?
My situation: I'm a NY state resident and will remain so for the foreseeable future. My spouse just moved to San Francisco and intends to stay there. NY state does not allow no-fault divorce or legal separation, and my spouse does not want a fault-based divorce or separation. For tax purposes, we need either a divorce or judgment of separation before the end of 2006. We think that best option would for my CA spouse to file for legal separation as soon as possible in San Francisco, since there is no residency or waiting period requirement for legal separation. It appears that my spouse would need to pay a $335 filing fee when filing the initial papers (Forms FL-100 and FL-110). After I am served with the papers, I would need to file Form FL-120 (the Response) within 30 days, or I could get a default judgment. It appears that if I file Form FL-120, I'd have to pay a $335 filing fee. This is an outrageous amount of fees - $670 between the 2 of us! NY state fees add up to only about $400 total. We're separating and divorcing due to financial difficulties but would not qualify for any fee waiver. So, my question is, given that we are not contesting the case, would there be any negative consequence of my not filing the FL-120 (or actually I was thinking of sending it in with a not attached stating that I'm not contesting the case and would be fine with a default judgment if my FL-120 can't be processed due to my not including the fee) and getting the default judgment?
I know that sometimes out-of-state spouses who have gotten default divorce judgments have been able to challenge the validity of the divorce and property distribution orders due to jurisdiction; normally the divorce judgment is upheld because the state court of either spouse's residency does have jurisdiction over anything affecting the status of the marriage, but the property distribution is open to attack because the court might not have personal jurisdiction over the nonresident spouse if the nonresident spouse never participated in the case. However, I don't think this lack of personal jurisdiction would apply in my case, as we will also be submitting a settlement agreement signed by both of us and hopefully my including a note would let them know that I consent to the case; perhaps someone can comment on whether my reasoning is correct here?
Are there any negative consequences I should be aware of if I get a default judgment of legal separation from CA?
My situation: I'm a NY state resident and will remain so for the foreseeable future. My spouse just moved to San Francisco and intends to stay there. NY state does not allow no-fault divorce or legal separation, and my spouse does not want a fault-based divorce or separation. For tax purposes, we need either a divorce or judgment of separation before the end of 2006. We think that best option would for my CA spouse to file for legal separation as soon as possible in San Francisco, since there is no residency or waiting period requirement for legal separation. It appears that my spouse would need to pay a $335 filing fee when filing the initial papers (Forms FL-100 and FL-110). After I am served with the papers, I would need to file Form FL-120 (the Response) within 30 days, or I could get a default judgment. It appears that if I file Form FL-120, I'd have to pay a $335 filing fee. This is an outrageous amount of fees - $670 between the 2 of us! NY state fees add up to only about $400 total. We're separating and divorcing due to financial difficulties but would not qualify for any fee waiver. So, my question is, given that we are not contesting the case, would there be any negative consequence of my not filing the FL-120 (or actually I was thinking of sending it in with a not attached stating that I'm not contesting the case and would be fine with a default judgment if my FL-120 can't be processed due to my not including the fee) and getting the default judgment?
I know that sometimes out-of-state spouses who have gotten default divorce judgments have been able to challenge the validity of the divorce and property distribution orders due to jurisdiction; normally the divorce judgment is upheld because the state court of either spouse's residency does have jurisdiction over anything affecting the status of the marriage, but the property distribution is open to attack because the court might not have personal jurisdiction over the nonresident spouse if the nonresident spouse never participated in the case. However, I don't think this lack of personal jurisdiction would apply in my case, as we will also be submitting a settlement agreement signed by both of us and hopefully my including a note would let them know that I consent to the case; perhaps someone can comment on whether my reasoning is correct here?