How long have they been married?bononos said:What is the name of your state?
OH
Is a home purchased in contemplation of marriage, 3 months prior, using both persons money for down payment, but only mortgaged and deeded to one person still a marital asset?
I think I'd need a crystal ball for that one. Fairness would indicate that the spouse not on the deed should be entitled to a fair share of the house since they provided part of the down payment. However, unless the down payment was a big one the house may not have had a whole lot of equity at the time that they filed for divorce.bononos said:Divorce filed for 1.5 yrs. after marriage.
Well...then I hope the party not on the deed has a darned good attorney....because that certainly wasn't equitable.bononos said:Just getting opinions on how others think.
The down payment was 25%.
The home was remodeled at expenses and labor to both parties.
The house sold, without consent from party not on deed, for twice the purchase price.
I hope I have a good one too!LdiJ said:Well...then I hope the party not on the deed has a darned good attorney....because that certainly wasn't equitable.
Opinions don't mean a thing. Only the law matters in this situation.bononos said:Just getting opinions on how others think.
irrelevantThe down payment was 25%.
Again, unless marital property was used to remodel the home, irrelevant.The home was remodeled at expenses and labor to both parties.
the party not on the deed had no decision making rights in the selling of the home. and frankly, based on a marriage of only 1.5 years, the BEST the party not on the deed can hope for is a share of the equity from the remodel to the sale. And that's ONLY if it can be proven that marital assets were used to convert the separate property to that of marital property.The house sold, without consent from party not on deed, for twice the purchase price.
He did say "expenses and labor for both parties"...wouldn't that indicate that marital assets were used?BelizeBreeze said:Opinions don't mean a thing. Only the law matters in this situation.
irrelevant
Again, unless marital property was used to remodel the home, irrelevant.
the party not on the deed had no decision making rights in the selling of the home. and frankly, based on a marriage of only 1.5 years, the BEST the party not on the deed can hope for is a share of the equity from the remodel to the sale. And that's ONLY if it can be proven that marital assets were used to convert the separate property to that of marital property.
Nope. expenses coming from where?LdiJ said:He did say "expenses and labor for both parties"...wouldn't that indicate that marital assets were used?
Well...unless I am misunderstanding you, I took expenses to mean the cost of the remodel, and labor to be the labor of the remodel...and that both participated in this.BelizeBreeze said:Nope. expenses coming from where?
Just remember, YOU said that...not I.LdiJ said:Maybe I am reading too much into this.
And when did this happen? Where was your attorney during this process?bononos said:To clarify, the home was purchased 3 months prior to marriage. No remodeling commenced until after the marriage. The money used to remodel the home was from both parties incomes and a portion of the wedding gifts.
The problem in my situation -
Ex sold home to his parents after I filed for divorce (stating equitable distribution), but before divorce was final for an amount of $1.00.
And as BB said, I could do nothing about it.
They in turn resold the home for an amount double the original purchase price.
I received NOTHING. Not one cent.