chachi1020
Junior Member
What is the name of your state? Michigan
Ok, my sister recently went through a divorce. My Ex-Brother-In-Law typed up the Divorce Judgment paper that specified the details of spousal support and such. There are no kids involved. Part of the aggreement says that he will pay for half of her health insurance for 3 years. She has not had health insurance now for 2 months or so, and he blames it on his company, and says that she will be covered retroactively and everything. She is in a bad medical situation that if left unchecked could force her into the hospital. She cannot afford to go to the doctor as she doesn't work. The past few times she has talked to him about it he has threatened to quit his job if she keeps bugging about it, stating that according to the aggreement that he created he would not have to pay her anything until he got another job and then would go to court to have the amount reduced if his new job did not pay as much. I have pasted the exact part of the aggreement below.
• If I lose my job, or become unemployed during the aforementioned thirty-six (36) month period, I will not be responsible for any payments during that time, and payment would not roll over extending the 36 month payment period. Those particular weekly payment obligations become null and void only during that time.
My question is this - According to the terminology written here, would he in fact be able to stop payments if he quit his job? Would the term " If I lose my job, or become unemployed" be related to quitting his job, or would he have to be layed off or fired? And the possible second part of that would be if it would only be related to him getting layed off or fired, would that also apply to him getting himself fired (not showing up, or something like that, that would force his company to fire him)? Any help would be much appreciated. Please feel free to email me at [email protected]. Thanks again for any help.
Chuck
Ok, my sister recently went through a divorce. My Ex-Brother-In-Law typed up the Divorce Judgment paper that specified the details of spousal support and such. There are no kids involved. Part of the aggreement says that he will pay for half of her health insurance for 3 years. She has not had health insurance now for 2 months or so, and he blames it on his company, and says that she will be covered retroactively and everything. She is in a bad medical situation that if left unchecked could force her into the hospital. She cannot afford to go to the doctor as she doesn't work. The past few times she has talked to him about it he has threatened to quit his job if she keeps bugging about it, stating that according to the aggreement that he created he would not have to pay her anything until he got another job and then would go to court to have the amount reduced if his new job did not pay as much. I have pasted the exact part of the aggreement below.
• If I lose my job, or become unemployed during the aforementioned thirty-six (36) month period, I will not be responsible for any payments during that time, and payment would not roll over extending the 36 month payment period. Those particular weekly payment obligations become null and void only during that time.
My question is this - According to the terminology written here, would he in fact be able to stop payments if he quit his job? Would the term " If I lose my job, or become unemployed" be related to quitting his job, or would he have to be layed off or fired? And the possible second part of that would be if it would only be related to him getting layed off or fired, would that also apply to him getting himself fired (not showing up, or something like that, that would force his company to fire him)? Any help would be much appreciated. Please feel free to email me at [email protected]. Thanks again for any help.
Chuck
