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Does Women's Use of restraining order constitute an ouster

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ProperProPer

Junior Member
California Question

Unmarried boyfriend and girlfriend buy a house together. GF obtains domestic violence restraining order against BF, BF out of house as GF insists on staying there.

GF refuses to sell. BF brings partition action asserts cause of action for ouster. GF asserts BF has to pay half of all mortgage while she - but not him - is in the house. BF serves ouster letter per CA Civil Code 843 but no response.

Question is whether the BF argument as follows is correct: 1) DV-RO does not change BF's right to possess as CA Family Court does not rule on property rights of unmarried individuals; 2) GF therefore in failing to agree to sell and using her presence to exclude BF affected an ouster; and 3) BF entitled to rent and has no obligation to pay anything while GF alone in the house.
 
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Zigner

Senior Member, Non-Attorney
California Question

Unmarried boyfriend and girlfriend buy a house together. GF obtains domestic violence restraining order against BF, BF out of house as GF insists on staying there.

GF refuses to sell. BF brings partition action asserts cause of action for ouster. GF asserts BF has to pay half of all rent while she - but not him - is in the house. BF serves ouster letter per CA Civil Code 843 but no response.

Question is whether the BF argument as follows is correct: 1) DV-RO does not change BF's right to possess as CA Family Court does not rule on property rights of unmarried individuals; 2) GF therefore in failing to agree to sell and using her presence to exclude BF affected an ouster; and 3) BF entitled to rent and has no obligation to pay anything while GF alone in the house.
Who are you in this mess?
Why do you think that an owner of the property has to pay rent on the property?
 

ProperProPer

Junior Member
"Why do you think that an owner of the property has to pay rent on the property?"

Numerous reasons owner has to pay rent to another owner. In the context of a pending dissolution these are called Watts Credits. If a partition action there are three reasons: agreement, ouster, or equity. Settled CA case law here.

Question is whether action is an ouster. That is not settled, though unpublished cases indicate this would constitute ouster.
 
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quincy

Senior Member
"Why do you think that an owner of the property has to pay rent on the property?"

Numerous reasons owner has to pay rent to another owner. In the context of a pending dissolution these are called Watts Credits. If a partition action there are three reasons: agreement, ouster, or equity. Settled CA case law here.

Question is whether action is an ouster. That is not settled, though unpublished cases indicate this would constitute ouster.
How was the house purchased? Are you (if you are the BF) on the mortgage papers?
 

LdiJ

Senior Member
California Question

Unmarried boyfriend and girlfriend buy a house together. GF obtains domestic violence restraining order against BF, BF out of house as GF insists on staying there.

GF refuses to sell. BF brings partition action asserts cause of action for ouster. GF asserts BF has to pay half of all rent while she - but not him - is in the house. BF serves ouster letter per CA Civil Code 843 but no response.

Question is whether the BF argument as follows is correct: 1) DV-RO does not change BF's right to possess as CA Family Court does not rule on property rights of unmarried individuals; 2) GF therefore in failing to agree to sell and using her presence to exclude BF affected an ouster; and 3) BF entitled to rent and has no obligation to pay anything while GF alone in the house.
I really hope that the ex boyfriend has an attorney, because otherwise, what he is doing could very well be a violation of the restraining order. A partition action (through an attorney) is appropriate. The ex-girlfriend's request that the ex-boyfriend be responsible for 1/2 of the mortgage until the house sells is not inappropriate. Boyfriend arguing that he should not have to pay 1/2 of the mortgage since he cannot use the property is not inappropriate either. The whole "ouster" bit is seriously pushing the envelope.

Also...where in the world do you get the idea that the boyfriend can both receive "rent" for his half of the house AND not be responsible for 1/2 of the mortgage? That is completely illogical.
 

ProperProPer

Junior Member
I really hope that the ex boyfriend has an attorney, because otherwise, what he is doing could very well be a violation of the restraining order. A partition action (through an attorney) is appropriate. The ex-girlfriend's request that the ex-boyfriend be responsible for 1/2 of the mortgage until the house sells is not inappropriate. Boyfriend arguing that he should not have to pay 1/2 of the mortgage since he cannot use the property is not inappropriate either. The whole "ouster" bit is seriously pushing the envelope.

Also...where in the world do you get the idea that the boyfriend can both receive "rent" for his half of the house AND not be responsible for 1/2 of the mortgage? That is completely illogical.
DV-RO modified to allow the partition litigation - which itself required litigation.

Imputed rent is appropriate if there is an ouster, that's CA case law (Hunter v Schultz). Also logical as GF used BF's credit and downpayment without compensating him for it. In exchange for GF's payments on mortgage she has house and receives the equity those payments accrue. (Watt's credits in dissolution provide for this same owner to owner rent.)

The question is whether the acts constitute an ouster. When BF served Civil Code 843 letter on GF equity demands she should have agreed to sale - even if proceeds were placed in escrow pending partition trial - so as not to continue to encumber BF's credit. Her acts prejudiced BF without grounds. The rent to BF is both a compensatory and punitive remedy for her ousting BF from real property he had a right to possess...

Or so the argument goes.
 

ProperProPer

Junior Member
The boyfriend, as co-owner, is as responsible for making the loan payments as the GF, whether he is living in the home or not.
Completely wrong. No case has ever agreed with this assertion in CA. Per Regalado v. Regalado (1961) 198 Cal.App.2d 549.   "We know of no rule of law requiring a cotenant out of possession to contribute for moneys paid in connection with the property by the cotenant in possession while during the very period for which the moneys were paid he asserted exclusive ownership in himself."
 
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quincy

Senior Member
Completely wrong. No case has ever agreed with this assertion in CA. Per Regalado v. Regalado (1961) 198 Cal.App.2d 549.   "We know of no rule of law requiring a cotenant out of possession to contribute for moneys paid in connection with the property by the cotenant in possession while during the very period for which the moneys were paid he asserted exclusive ownership in himself."
See Marvin v. Marvin, 18 Cal 3d 660 (1976). http://sco.stanford.edu/opinion/marvin-v-marvin-27965

Do the GF and BF have a written co-ownership agreement? If both the GF and BF are on the mortgage note, both the GF and the BF are liable on this promissory note unless the mortgage holder releases one of them.

The house will probably have to be sold unless the GF can afford the home on her own and purchase the BF's share of equity. If the two cannot agree on how to handle the property, the final resort can be a proceeding for partition.
 

tranquility

Senior Member
Numerous reasons owner has to pay rent to another owner. In the context of a pending dissolution these are called Watts Credits. If a partition action there are three reasons: agreement, ouster, or equity. Settled CA case law here.

Question is whether action is an ouster. That is not settled, though unpublished cases indicate this would constitute ouster.
It is better to actually answer questions people ask, it guides advice better. I will assume you are BF suing for partition Pro per.

To start, you will always have more access to the facts and, apparently, to the case law on the specific facts. The advantage of Pro per's is that they don't know anything so they look up everything if they have the time. Any tidbit, any hint of an argument and they are all over it. Sometimes, under some circumstances, when some thing, has some value, and a court with some sympathy, had some mention, in a way that somehow helps the argument--SLAM DUNK! Usually, generalities win without skilled attorneys looking to push the law forward.

While I know you were answering a question, put "Watts Credits" out of your mind. You are not married. Get over it, move on. There is no way you will convince a court, unless they are desperately trying to help a person with a domestic violence order against them, is not going there. If they do, they should be disbarred. We are not talking of community property. The nonsense that would ensue from such rights in your case would make a mockery of the law. If you have a case that used it as justification under facts near yours, let me know. I will start a committee for the removal for the silly judge.

You obviously have no agreement, you obviously have no equity argument (If you want to claim this, give me your argument. To me it seems clear.), and so you go for ouster.

Under basic common law, there is no "ouster". I admit it is a clever argument. But, there are two problems. One is the basic issue of ouster. While you want to place the onus on the person (owner) who opened litigation, in reality, it is the judge who decided the remedy. Also, we get to the basic theory of "possession". While the judge's order might prevent all realities of "possession", I think it does not. That YOU can't stay there (For any of a number of reasons. Stay away from the plaintiff. Stay away from the residence. Whatever.) does not mean you have lost "possession". You may have lost parts of possession, depending on the order, but you have not lost them all. By my guess of how the order reads, you have not lost any real possession. You just can't be there when she is there as you have to stay a certain distance away.

But, answer all the questions previously asked. It might help the gestalt give something that helps you. To be fair, a certain percentage will dislike the facts already provided and will do some stomping. Suck it up, buttercup, people who are serious about being together get married. Living together does not give the same rights in general. (I say in general as I used to have a certain amount of business from gay couples who wanted to legally bind themselves to each other as in marriage. The sad part was you could not quite do it. At some point it is an argument. The good part is that two people would come together out of love with full understanding of what legal duties and responsibilities were created a construct that could accomplish what they wanted.) You did not do that. You moved in with your gal and lived as though how you lived was going to be fair in some way. You broke up. "You guys" are done. Now you are in litigation.

Sucks to be you. I suggest an attorney. They know how to help you best. I know you can't afford it, but, don't you want an expert on your side? (This is the best advantage to the unmarried. You don't have to pay for her attorney.)

Bottom line? Argue "ouster" to me and I would make you cry like a little girl. If she does not have an attorney, it depends on the judge.
 

tranquility

Senior Member
See Marvin v. Marvin, 18 Cal 3d 660 (1976). http://sco.stanford.edu/opinion/marvin-v-marvin-27965

Do the GF and BF have a written co-ownership agreement? If both the GF and BF are on the mortgage note, both the GF and the BF are liable on this promissory note unless the mortgage holder releases one of them.

The house will probably have to be sold unless the GF can afford the home on her own and purchase the BF's share of equity. If the two cannot agree on how to handle the property, the final resort can be a proceeding for partition.
Marvin v. Marvin had to do with promises. This is ownership. The OP (I assume.) has ownership. The OP says he owns the property and, because of the order, cannot live there.

Is that ouster?

That is his real question.
 

quincy

Senior Member
Marvin v. Marvin had to do with promises. This is ownership. The OP (I assume.) has ownership. The OP says he owns the property and, because of the order, cannot live there.

Is that ouster?

That is his real question.
Yes, Marvin might not have applied as well as I thought. I had a link to the case on hand. :)

ProperProPer could potentially recover his share of the value of the use of the home once the house is sold but he has been ordered by a court to stay away so, if there is any "ouster" at all, it is a court-ordered one. He cannot demand entry and recover possession without violating the order.

The court order does not relieve him of his mortgage obligations.
 

ProperProPer

Junior Member
Yes, Marvin might not have applied as well as I thought. I had a link to the case on hand. :)

ProperProPer could potentially recover his share of the value of the use of the home once the house is sold but he has been ordered by a court to stay away so, if there is any "ouster" at all, it is a court-ordered one. He cannot demand entry and recover possession without violating the order.

The court order does not relieve him of his mortgage obligations.
The Court did not order GF to stay in the house. That was her choice, and that choice affected the ouster.

You have the right to change the locks on your door. But if you exercise that choice in order to exclude a cotenant, that is ouster.

The ouster also comes from the Civil Code 843 demand that was ignored. She should have agreed to sell or take in renters during the 60 day running of such a demand.

The mortgage obligations only accrued because GF refused to sell, denying BF his equitable right to sell property he owned.

A court cannot oust one cotenant in favor of another - to do so would violate either or both of the countracts clause or the takings clause of the constitution.
 
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