J
johnlbisson
Guest
I purchased a duplex in Florida in order to have a sinlge mother and her child live in one unit and rent the other unit as short and long term rentals in order to offset expenses and allow her to live at this resort property/island. As an owner, I have not received or requested any income from this property. The sole purpose is for a home for this mother and child. Question? Is this property considered residential or commercial? This is in reference to a lawsuit filed against the seller of the property for latent defects. Under a Florida case, Johnson v. Davis, they had a similar situation, but it was residential. Commercial property is treated differently in Florida, where Caveat Emptor is more applicable to the commercial property owner!
[This message has been edited by johnlbisson (edited January 03, 2000).]
[This message has been edited by johnlbisson (edited January 03, 2000).]