follow-up

[ngmb]

The response says that it would depend on the laws 15 years ago. Why? Since we are still living together now and have since shortly after the divorce, wouldn't the current law be of more use?

 

[I AM ALWAYS LIABLE]

My response:

Not necessarily. The law looks at when an act was performed, and under the laws when it was done. If the laws were somehow different 15 years ago, current laws may not cure an act.

For example, in Texas today, in order for a Common Law marriage to be good, a man and woman have to register and sign papers with the Clerk of City Hall.

I do not know if, 15 years ago, registering was a requirement. For all I know, the law back then could be similar to, for example, Colorado's current law, which is all you have to do is live together, and "hold yourself out" as man and wife.

Perhaps, 15 years ago, registration in Texas was, in fact, a requirement - - - I don't know. But if it was, or it wasn't, will surely have an impact on whether or not you're married.

So, if the law in Texas was different back then, then you'll need to know if your relationship complied with the law 15 years ago.

Please use this thread for any further questions or responses, by clicking the "reply" button below.

IAAL