Your didn't answer a question.
The lien is paid off, so the original lender doesn't give a fly's fart. Are you asking if the person who paid the lien (the new owner) can force the original owner to repay him?
I wrote-up a more thorough explanation of the events... Maybe this will help:
John purchased a property/business of which Peter financed and holds the article-of-agreement. John became sick and unable to run the business. Peter presented a "document" for John to sign, of which Peter explained (falsely) to John that Peter would hold payments on the loan until John recovered, and was able to re-start payments. The document was a single signature page... Of which Peter then attached to the first page, out of site from John, that transferred the property/business to Peter.
Peter then, not in the presence of John, had the document notarized... But not really. Peter "acquired" a notary-stamp, not his, and stamped/signed himself.
After John recovered and wanted to re-start his business… He contacted Peter to re-start the payments. Peter did not return John’s calls. John returned to the property/business and found Peter had sold it to a new owner (cash… don’t know if there is mortgage-insurance).
An inquiry at the courthouse confirmed the transfer from Peter to the new owner; And the loan that Peter held on John was satisfied by Peter.
At this point… John reads the deed-transfer and realizes he did not sign the document that was filed at the courthouse.
Now understand although John is great at his craft… He is not a businessman. In conversation between John and another person named Paul… Paul as a title-researcher, offered to look into the matter. Paul pulled a copy of the notary used… And quickly realized the signature on the notary certificate did not match the signature on the document that was used to transfer the property from John to Peter.
Although notary logs are public… The notary refused to show Paul his ledgers. Long-story short… The Attorney General’s office investigated and confirmed the deed transfer was a fraudulent transaction. The Attorney General’s office is currently in-touch with the District Attorney’s office.
Assuming the property does eventually revert back to John because of the fraudulent transaction… Can Peter reinstate the lien/loan?