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Giving up parental rights

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nextwife

Senior Member
Whether she does now or not, at most it is a VERY early pregnancy:
http://www.health-science-report.com/miscarriage/miscarriage-cause/miscarriage-percentage.html

"Miscarriage Percentage
Actual miscarriage percentage among women is high; risk reduction and early care of HPV dysplasia found in a Pap smear and other STDs improves chances.

According to statistics, about a half of all fertilized eggs end up miscarried before a woman even knows about the pregnancy. Hence, a natural loss is common and many women (about 87%) who have experienced one fetal loss are likely to deliver a baby successfully in the future. Actual miscarriage percentage among women is high; risk reduction and early care of HPV dysplasia found in a Pap smear and other STDs improves chances."

One week, even if test-able, is earlier than most women would traditionally have been aware they are pregnant. It is now realized, medically, that far more women have lost pregnancies in the earliest weeks (and never been aware of it), before they missed a period, than was previously thought. Until and unless there actually IS a baby, he can do (and probably should do) NOTHING.
 

rmet4nzkx

Senior Member
The fact is how a pregnancy is dated has always created confusion, and when people have multiple sexual partners it is more confusing. Where as the medical profession dates a pregnancy as Ohiogal stated from LMP many people also date if from what is thought to be the time of conception which include about 1 week before and after ovulation, then there is the point at which the "fetus" implants and the body starts producing HCG that can be measured, so depenfing on the length of the cycle, the time of ovulation, and when the "fetus" implanted, a woman could be at least 1 week pregnant whether LMP or post conception and measure positive on a sensitive pregnancy test prior to her next period. I guess is that both OP and the "Girl" are both very young and even using the withdrawl method during her "fertile" time could easily result in pregnancy and there is no way to do any DNA test until the pregnancy is at least 10 weeks LMP and only then with consent of the mother.
 

nextwife

Senior Member
rmet4nzkx said:
The fact is how a pregnancy is dated has always created confusion, and when people have multiple sexual partners it is more confusing. Where as the medical profession dates a pregnancy as Ohiogal stated from LMP many people also date if from what is thought to be the time of conception which include about 1 week before and after ovulation, then there is the point at which the "fetus" implants and the body starts producing HCG that can be measured, so depenfing on the length of the cycle, the time of ovulation, and when the "fetus" implanted, a woman could be at least 1 week pregnant whether LMP or post conception and measure positive on a sensitive pregnancy test prior to her next period. I guess is that both OP and the "Girl" are both very young and even using the withdrawl method during her "fertile" time could easily result in pregnancy and there is no way to do any DNA test until the pregnancy is at least 10 weeks LMP and only then with consent of the mother.

It is even possible for fraternal twins to be concieved during the same cycle, with each having different fathers.
 

rmet4nzkx

Senior Member
nextwife said:
It is even possible for fraternal twins to be concieved during the same cycle, with each having different fathers.
Yes that is also true, it happens all the time with dogs:rolleyes:
 

NotSoNew

Senior Member
Ohiogal said:
One week pregnant is one week after the last menstrual cycle which is USUALLY before a woman even ovulates for the cycle. Which means without ovulation there is no egg for the sperm to fertilize. This guy needs to figure it out.
yes when you actually conceive you are already 2 weeks pregnant offically.

and i tested 5 days before my period was due this time and got a postitive, but at that point i was almost 4 weeks pregnant. not one week pregnant.
 

rmet4nzkx

Senior Member
fairisfair said:
perhaps you might try looking up the medical term "superfecundation", it happens with people too! woof.
Troll,
REREAD what I posted I said it can happen with humans, the additional statement re dogs was also true, what is your problem?
 

fairisfair

Senior Member
rmet4nzkx said:
Troll,
REREAD what I posted I said it can happen with humans, the additional statement re dogs was also true, what is your problem?
bite me, with your rolly eyes, you insinuated that next wife was wrong and that it happened with dogs. You did NOT say it ALSO happens with dogs. What's wrong RMET, don't like some one correcting you, perhaps you should stop doing it to other people then.
Especially when you are wrong most of the time.
 

nextwife

Senior Member
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/entrez/query.fcgi?cmd=Retrieve&db=PubMed&list_uids=10641935&dopt=Abstract


A case of superfecundation and dual paternity in a twin pregnancy is presented. Placental abruption developed at week 33 of gestation and the two boys had to be saved by emergency cesarean section. As they shared one placenta, had almost identical weight and had the same sex, they were assumed to be monozygotic. However, a subsequent paternity suit led to the conclusion, based on DNA-analysis, that the twin brothers had been fathered by two different men. Obstetrical implications are discussed."

The implications of such a scenario are rather interesting in respects to CS and custody.
Twins could each have different visitation schedules (one supervised, one shared custody), different levels of support, and different judges making determinations about their cases (this might occur if each father proactively and independently files for paternity establishment). Also, I would presume that in ALL fraternal twin births, BOTH twins would need to be DNA tested for paternity establishment. If only ONE twin is positive for the father testing, for example, would mom need to reimburse dad for the cost of the second test? Can just ONE of the fathers be made responsible for the birthing costs, if no paternity has been established for twin 2, for example?

If dad of twin 1 works days and can provide daytime care for his child, would he then get daytime custody of one twin, while the other goes to daycare? Etc.
 
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moburkes

Senior Member
Not to argue with either of you, or jump into your argument, but I just assumed that rmet was ADDING another species, not saying that it doesn't happen with humans.
 

fairisfair

Senior Member
moburkes said:
Not to argue with either of you, or jump into your argument, but I just assumed that rmet was ADDING another species, not saying that it doesn't happen with humans.
she could have done that with out the rolly eyes
 

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