I never purchased anything overseas via the internet; therefore,
information in the following quote is not new to you (sovdia), but
it might be of interest to some other readers of this thread:
"Purchases sent by a merchant abroad
The merchant will attach an international customs declaration to
your package, which he or she should fill out with a complete,
accurate description of the parcel's contents and value. The
merchant will then mail or ship the package to the address you
supply.
Although the merchant may charge you for the cost of mailing or
shipping your package, he should not charge you for U.S.
Customs duties. Customs duties are not assessed until a
package arrives in the United States, and they cannot be paid in
advance. If a merchant tells you that you must prepay duty, do
not believe him or her. The Postal Service in the United States will
collect any duty owed from the recipient; in fact, by law, only the
designated recipient (addressee) is liable for duty. The
shipment's originator-the merchant, for example-will not be
charged duty for goods that he or she has sent to the United
States."
source:
http://www.customs.ustreas.gov/travel/travel.htm
Back to the central issue:
This may be a hotly debated issue, but it appears you are not
selling products in the U.S. Theoretically, a U.S. citizen is (1)
visiting your country via the internet, (2) making a purchase in
your country, (3) instructing you to mail the purchase to the
address of their choosing, and (4) returning to the U.S. without
the product. The fact that you might be advertising in the U.S.
should have no bearing as to where the purchase was made.
It would seem any agreement, between the U.S. distributors/
retailers and the manufacturer, should include a clause/statement
that says no other manufacturer distributors/retailers can advertise
in the United States other than themselves. But the tricky
problem is determining whether or not foreign suppliers are
advertising in the U.S. If a retailer in England is advertising
on Microsoft's U.S. website, or on a U.S. Microsoft search
engine, then the retailer is advertising in the U.S. However,
a link from Microsoft's U.S. web site to another web site
in Canada, where an advertisement appears for a retailer
located in another country; then such an advertisement should
not be construed as being done in America. Another point to
consider. Someone visits your web site as a result of doing a
"jewelry in general" search on a U.S. search engine, but not
for the specific brand in question. In that event, you are
advertising in the U.S., but you are not advertising the
specific brand in question in the U.S; i.e., you would not
be violating any manufacturer/distributor agreement.
The manufacuturer might attempt to restrict where shipments
could be made, but this would probably be struck down by the
courts. The retailer is not doing the shipping. Instead, a shipping
company of the customer's choice is doing the actual shipping.
There is a distinction between selling, handling, packaging, and
shipping. Also, the customer may be purchasing other items
that are from a different manufacturer.
What I theorize may not be what is actually viewed by the
various legislative bodies, courts, and governmental agencies
in different countries. Also, there may be some technological
issues involved as to make it difficult to determine where
something is actually transpiring over the internet.
In conclusion, you may sell to U.S. citizens who visit your "store"
in England, but you (per an agreement) and/or your suppliers
(per an agreement) may not be able to advertise in the U.S, the
specific brand in question.