JennJenn1981
Junior Member
STATE: Illinois
Hello,
I am new to the H.R. field and had a question regarding benefit availability. The company I work for employees "corporate" employees (full-time hourly, and salaried (exempt)) as well as sales representatives in different stats throughout the U.S.
I was reading through one of our offer letter attachments that goes out to our sales representatives, and noticed that these people must meet a performance requirement in their first 90 days of employment in order for us to offer them benefits (according to our contract). Contract reads: To enroll in the company benefits program on the 91st day of employment, you must complete 20 new standard $25-program agreements in the first 90 days."
It didn't make sense to me that our corporate employees (as long as they are full time) are eligible for benefits simply because they are here for 90 days.
I was reading an employment law book that says, "If health insurance is available through an employer, all employees must be offered the same coverage, or the same options for coverage, under the same conditions."
I interpret this to mean that we can't have a performance requirements for one group if we don't have them for other groups. Can anyone tell me if I'm on the right path here? Would anyone know what law or statute I could reference to find out if I'm correct?
Thanks very much!
Jenn L.
Hello,
I am new to the H.R. field and had a question regarding benefit availability. The company I work for employees "corporate" employees (full-time hourly, and salaried (exempt)) as well as sales representatives in different stats throughout the U.S.
I was reading through one of our offer letter attachments that goes out to our sales representatives, and noticed that these people must meet a performance requirement in their first 90 days of employment in order for us to offer them benefits (according to our contract). Contract reads: To enroll in the company benefits program on the 91st day of employment, you must complete 20 new standard $25-program agreements in the first 90 days."
It didn't make sense to me that our corporate employees (as long as they are full time) are eligible for benefits simply because they are here for 90 days.
I was reading an employment law book that says, "If health insurance is available through an employer, all employees must be offered the same coverage, or the same options for coverage, under the same conditions."
I interpret this to mean that we can't have a performance requirements for one group if we don't have them for other groups. Can anyone tell me if I'm on the right path here? Would anyone know what law or statute I could reference to find out if I'm correct?
Thanks very much!
Jenn L.