M
mhd
Guest
I am in Texas. My husband is a self-employed one-man company doing home remodeling/repairs. He fell while working on a customer's home and broke his back. He is permanently paralyzed from the armpits down. His hospitalization was 2 months and his medical needs will be lifelong. His health insurance is via my employer. The insurance company is denying all claims saying it should be a workmen's comp claim. My husband did not have workmen's comp. We have not yet filled out the form the insurance company requested asking about the accident. My husband is afraid that since he was working, the insurance company will not have to pay his medical bills. He has not billed this customer for the work that was completed prior to the accident and says therefore it wasn't a paying job and shouldn't be considered a work-related accident. Does this really matter as far as the health insurance company's obligation to pay his medical bills? Thanks for any help.