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G

gatorman

Guest
What is the name of your state?WA

I'm facing a dilemma here - this goes back to my posting of a copier lease last month.

I understand that written contracts take precedence over the verbal communication; but all the verbal communication, as well as email documentation, shows that the intent was for one thing - but the contract, which I signed(and was being negligent in not reading the details) was for something else

Now, I have two questions:

1) If the proposal stated one thing, and we as the lessee depended completely on that one thing to be done so we would agree to the contract...fully thinking that it would be done after the agreement was signed. But in fact, this one thing had already been done last year...had we realized that was the case, I never would have signed the agreement.

Is there something to that? is it still a binding written agreement, if we truly based our decision to sign this agreement on the fact that they would do something for us afterwards, but instead it was already done?

2) I'm hearing in the State of Washington, that there are three factors that make a copier lease binding:

1) Signed written documentation(which I did sign it - without looking into it in detail - they have me by the, you know what, on that one.
2) Physical possession - which we have physical posssession
3) first payment - which we don't intend to pay for anything until things are straightened out.

As a little side note, the sales guy that we were working with has been let go from the company...not sure if it's relevant, but sure does pose an interesting item

Please let me know, what you think. If you need more detail, I can give more.
 



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