J
Jamj2
Guest
My spouse and I are getting a divorce. Therefore, we are selling our house in California. We haved owned the house for three years, and during most of that time she has paid a larger portion of the mortgage. For most of the time it was probably a 60/40 split. When the house sells would this fact entitle her to a larger portion of the money from the house? Is it split 50/50 because it is community property?