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gasouthernboy

Junior Member
What is the name of your state? Georgia

OK. Someone left me a voicemail on my cell phone from a blocked number. They stated that they were a doctor calling and checking on if i had any outbreaks of sexually transmitted deseases. This really hurt my feelings. I took my cell phone up to fhe police station and they traced the blocked number, so i now know who it is. Would this be a probable cause for me to file a law suit for slander?
 


neener17

Junior Member
No you have no case.....Was there any truth to the claim? wasn't aware the police would assist in tracing a call of this nature..seems like nothing more than a harsssing or crank call...Call the phone provider and get the number changed..
 
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BelizeBreeze

Senior Member
What is the name of your state? Georgia

OK. Someone left me a voicemail on my cell phone from a blocked number. They stated that they were a doctor calling and checking on if i had any outbreaks of sexually transmitted deseases. This really hurt my feelings. I took my cell phone up to fhe police station and they traced the blocked number, so i now know who it is. Would this be a probable cause for me to file a law suit for slander?
and do you know for a fact that a doctor did NOT call this person and that there was information exchanged?
 

GatorLaw

Member
No, there was no publication.
Bingo! While ACCUSING someone of having sexually transmitted diseases I think is slander per se, someone else actually has to have heard this statement when they made it. No one else heard it + no damages = no slander case.
 

tranquility

Senior Member
Irrelevant. Asking if one has VD is not the same as accusing someone of having the herps. Not that I believe a word of the post anyway - what PD is going to trace a crank call because someone's "feelings were hurt"?
I don't believe a word either. However, from a legal standpoint, would it be easier to defend on publication or on false and defamitory statement in this instance? Can a person ask a question which is defamitory? (AKA "innuendo".)

No one else heard it + no damages = no slander case.
If the statement were considered defamatory and related to a loathsome disease or being an unchaste woman, making a potential of Slander per se, what would damages have to do with it?
 

You Are Guilty

Senior Member
I don't believe a word either. However, from a legal standpoint, would it be easier to defend on publication or on false and defamitory statement in this instance? Can a person ask a question which is defamitory? (AKA "innuendo".)
Interesting argument. I won't venture a blanket answer but given the free expression and opinion implications, I'd say its unlikely in general, and certainly in this case.

But we're clearly getting far afield of our little, lying poster. :D
 

gasouthernboy

Junior Member
Well guys...the reason i post this is, is not that "IM" a liar... i kind of reversed the post. I had called someone, one of my so called buddies, and left them a voice mail stating what i had said in the post. The person took it the wrong way and had said that they had went to the PD about it. There was word going around saying that he was suing me for slander. I was trying to figure out if this was possible.! :D
 

Some Random Guy

Senior Member
Your buddy needs to grow up. Nobody else would have known about the call if he hadn't spread it around. He should also know that no doctor would ever leave such a message in today's litigous and HIPAA controlled society.

Next time, tell us the story straight the first time. We'll poke fun at you for being the rude prankster, but the legal answer will be the same.
 

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