S
sahara
Guest
i was married and lived in pennsylvania with my husband for 3 years. he went to idaho and after being there for 2 days filed for divorce even though he had to be a resident for 6 weeks and i have proof he wasn't because he came back 1 week later and worked in pa. the divorce was granted because i didn't know he had to be a resident for 6 weeks until now, so legally we aren't divorced, are we and he married someone else the day our "divorce" was supposedly granted, so that means we were still married when he married again and he committed bigamy, right? and being i'm still legally his wife am i entitled to assets he accumulated during his "second" marriage?