In a different thread, I made the statement that the following would be an unreasonable interpretation of "failing to yield to pedestrian":
Carl responded later with:
To me, this meant that any extreme situation, as long as it met any possible (possibly bizzare) interpretation of the statute, should be deemed reasonable and that we as citizens (or maybe Carl was just throwing rocks at me) should accept any such interpretation as "reasonable".
On another thread, an OP talks about getting a cell phone use ticket because he was listening to music on his cell phone. Sniper pointed out that he was USING the cell phone, therefore, he could be found guilty. I pointed out that he could be USING his cell phone to stir his coffee, and by strict reading of the statute, that would be a violaion... but that certainly doesn't follow the intent of the statute. I was basing this on a REASONABLE interpretation. However, I am beginning to wonder... Does "reasonable" exist in traffic court?? Should it exist in traffic court?? What do we as citizens expect of the government entities that exist to serve us??
I felt like I was posing a ridiculous example to make a point that there IS such a time where grey no longer exists... a matter does become black and white by REASONABLE standards.If I am at a crosswalk on a multilane road and I am in the far right lane, a pedestrian could cross in front of me from my right to left. By the twisted interpretations in the court you [Carl] refer to, I would have to allow the pedestrian to go all the way past at least 3 more lanes, a center divider and a bicycle lane before I could proceed.
Carl responded later with:
It may come as a surprise to you, Jim, but people can hold a different opinion than yours and still be "reasonable" ... the world and the Vehicle Code are not the Gospel according to Jim.
To me, this meant that any extreme situation, as long as it met any possible (possibly bizzare) interpretation of the statute, should be deemed reasonable and that we as citizens (or maybe Carl was just throwing rocks at me) should accept any such interpretation as "reasonable".
On another thread, an OP talks about getting a cell phone use ticket because he was listening to music on his cell phone. Sniper pointed out that he was USING the cell phone, therefore, he could be found guilty. I pointed out that he could be USING his cell phone to stir his coffee, and by strict reading of the statute, that would be a violaion... but that certainly doesn't follow the intent of the statute. I was basing this on a REASONABLE interpretation. However, I am beginning to wonder... Does "reasonable" exist in traffic court?? Should it exist in traffic court?? What do we as citizens expect of the government entities that exist to serve us??
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