R
Rainman
Guest
A past boss of mine purchased a computer for me. (It was for my own personal use.) It was a VERBAL agreement between the two of us that I would only pay for $600 out of the $2,000 total cost of the computer. To be quite frank and open about the situation, the reason why she agreed to pay more than 2/3 of the price of the computer is because she was playing the role of a "sugarmommy" to me.
To make a long story short, I have decided to end this affair with my past boss because I've been getting involved with a different woman with whom I'm moving out of the state with.
My ex-boss is now angry and bitter because I'm ending the relationship and am moving. So, she has now filed for a civil action hearing claiming that I still owe her $1,400 for the computer. (This was the part that she had promised to pay due to our "sugarmommy" relationship.)
She is now trying to say that we had agreement all along that she was just helping me to purchase the computer and that I had agreed to make payments for the entire cost of the computer.
The only agreement that we ever had about the computer was verbally. And that was me only agreeing to pay for $600 of it, not $2,000. There is only one thing that worries me. I know that her current employees are well devoted to her and would more than likely lie in court for her as witnesses.
I firmly believe that she will ask a few of her employees to state that they had heard me make comments to her reguarding being financially responsible for the whole thing. When actually, that isn't the truth at all.
Even if she has her employees lie for her, wouldn't this just all be hearsay? I've never signed my name to anything stating that I asked her to purchase this for me, nor did I sign any paper of any type claiming that I would take responsibility for anything financially with this computer.
So, even if someone did lie for her, this civil case against me wouldn't hold water, would it? I've never signed ANYTHING, so even if someone lied and said that I did VERBALLY agree to pay for the whole thing, the whole case would be dismissed. Am I right in my thinking??
To make a long story short, I have decided to end this affair with my past boss because I've been getting involved with a different woman with whom I'm moving out of the state with.
My ex-boss is now angry and bitter because I'm ending the relationship and am moving. So, she has now filed for a civil action hearing claiming that I still owe her $1,400 for the computer. (This was the part that she had promised to pay due to our "sugarmommy" relationship.)
She is now trying to say that we had agreement all along that she was just helping me to purchase the computer and that I had agreed to make payments for the entire cost of the computer.
The only agreement that we ever had about the computer was verbally. And that was me only agreeing to pay for $600 of it, not $2,000. There is only one thing that worries me. I know that her current employees are well devoted to her and would more than likely lie in court for her as witnesses.
I firmly believe that she will ask a few of her employees to state that they had heard me make comments to her reguarding being financially responsible for the whole thing. When actually, that isn't the truth at all.
Even if she has her employees lie for her, wouldn't this just all be hearsay? I've never signed my name to anything stating that I asked her to purchase this for me, nor did I sign any paper of any type claiming that I would take responsibility for anything financially with this computer.
So, even if someone did lie for her, this civil case against me wouldn't hold water, would it? I've never signed ANYTHING, so even if someone lied and said that I did VERBALLY agree to pay for the whole thing, the whole case would be dismissed. Am I right in my thinking??