sjwhipple said:
I was divorced in Texas in 1996 and my ex- made some sneaky demands in the decree concerning our joint debt. I now live in California and she is asking me to adhere to her decree (pay her $1800). Is the State of Texas document valid for me as a California resident? Thank you for your help.
My response:
The Decree is "valid" only in Texas. It is, however, "recognized" in every State; e.g., that the two of you are divorced.
However, if she takes you back to court for "Contempt of Court" in Texas for your failure to pay the $1,800.00, that contempt citation is "enforceable" in California.
The Texas judge will give her a judgment when you fail to appear in Texas on the "Order to Show Cause Re: Contempt of Court" to show why it was permissible for you to disobey the original Decree. It will be that "judgment" that will be enforceable in California, or for that matter, any State.
The long and short of things is that if she's smart enough to know to file for an "Order to Show Cause", then for a little while, you'll be able to run, but you won't be able to hide.
Good luck.
IAAL
