<BLOCKQUOTE><font size="1" face="Verdana, Arial">quote:</font><HR>Originally posted by keeshy2:
I had a college student subleasing part of my house from me with an oral agreement in Virginia. I evicted him and sent him a letter stating he would not get his damage deposit back due to unpaid rent, cleaning charges, and damage to the house. Anyway, long story short, his mother sent me a nasty letter in which she demands his deposit back and makes the comment "Maybe it's your medication." I have NO idea what she's referring to in this statement. She also implied I have no moral values in this letter. (I've never met this woman) Is this considered libel or slander since it's in writing? Just need to know for my personal reference. Thanks!<HR></BLOCKQUOTE>
My response:
The letter is not libelous. Reason? It must be communicated to a third party, and then only if it is believed by that third party. Then, you must be subjected to a differing opinion about you by that third party; e.g., shunned, or loss of employment, or other damages, that directly relate to that letter. The comments must also be false, i.e., truth is a defense. You can check the definition under your State's laws by going to your nearest library, and I'm sure the librarian can give you the full text.
IAAL
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