R
Relayer100
Guest
This is a rather long and complicated story. 5 years ago, a company called XXX company was formed by an individual (Sub S). In March of 1999, the owner asked my wife to become a partner in the business using the DBA XYZ company. All assets, liabilities, name of the company, etc of XXX company were to remain the property of the original owner. XYZ company was used to enter new markets XXX company had not previously been in. My wife signed the partnership agreement of XXX DBA XYZ company. At the time, my wife owned XYZ company. Within the agreement, it states a separate "partner account" will be established for each partner. She also had an employment agreement with XXX company as an Account Executive. To make a long story short, the original owner of XXX company, from day one refused to establish a partner account for my wife, nor allow her to access to the cash in the company, denying her bank authorization for checks, etc, as clearly outlined in the agreement. No stock certificates were issued, no board of directors vote was taken to authorize the partnership. She signed a K1 thinking it was a tax extension until all the problems were worked out. The was no partnership disbursement at the end of the year, with the owner of XXX company keeping all the previous years profits in his own account, refusing to issue a dividend. In fact, at various times, the owner of XXX company would not even pay her her agreed salary per her employment agreement. When my wife argued the facts, she was told by the owner of XXX company that he will never give up control of the company to anyone. The question is:Was my wife ever really a partner and is she liable for any XXX company situations?