Asnyder301
New member
Recently my original lease agreement was set to expire on 1/31/2019. My LL was only willing to offer a 6 month extension. We had communicated prior about the fact that at the end of 2019 I had planned on moving out and purchasing a home. Through some negotiation the LL agreed to give me a 6 month extension, with this I asked that there be a clause that with 60 day notice the lease could be terminated as I planned on moving up my home purchase search.
The language the LL included is as follows:
“After April 1st 2019, tenant may terminate this amendment upon 60 days written notice should tenant enter into an agreement to purchase a home.”
I took this to mean that if I buy a home I would only need to provide 60 days notice and be able to terminate the lease April 1st or beyond. Which I now have and attempted to provide written notice that I would be paying my March rent then moved out before April 1st but the landlord is stating this amendment means that I would only be eligible to provide 60 day notice after April 1st.
Do I have a case here due to what I deem vague language?
The language the LL included is as follows:
“After April 1st 2019, tenant may terminate this amendment upon 60 days written notice should tenant enter into an agreement to purchase a home.”
I took this to mean that if I buy a home I would only need to provide 60 days notice and be able to terminate the lease April 1st or beyond. Which I now have and attempted to provide written notice that I would be paying my March rent then moved out before April 1st but the landlord is stating this amendment means that I would only be eligible to provide 60 day notice after April 1st.
Do I have a case here due to what I deem vague language?