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cantbelieveit13

Junior Member
New York
Is there a percentage relating to the amount of alimony that could be imposed.Is it related to my income?What about if my wife makes almost as much as I do?Any help would be greatly appreciated,thankyou.
 


LdiJ

Senior Member
New York
Is there a percentage relating to the amount of alimony that could be imposed.Is it related to my income?What about if my wife makes almost as much as I do?Any help would be greatly appreciated,thankyou.
If your wife makes almost as much as you do, then alimony is highly unlikely to be ordered, except maybe while the divorce is pending.
 

nextwife

Senior Member
New York
Is there a percentage relating to the amount of alimony that could be imposed.Is it related to my income?What about if my wife makes almost as much as I do?Any help would be greatly appreciated,thankyou.
If you two have nearly comparable incomes, why would/should there be ANY alimony? Just because she's FEMALE?
 

LdiJ

Senior Member
If they have comparable incomes, why should there even be SS "while the divorce" is pending?
It often happens to keep the bills paid and the assets in good standing while a divorce is pending and the property divided/settled...which is why I said "perhaps".
 

nextwife

Senior Member
If that's the logic, and there are comparable incomes, by the same logic she maybe should "perhaps" be ordered to pay SS temporarily to him to keep the bills paid, etc. while a divorce is pending and the property divided/settled.
 
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Bali Hai

Senior Member
If that's the logic, and there are comparable incomes, by the same logic she maybe should "perhaps" be ordered to pay SS temporarily to him to keep the bills paid, etc. while a divorce is pending and the property divided/settled.
That's not "traditional" and certainly won't make the poor wife happy!!
 

LdiJ

Senior Member
If that's the logic, and there are comparable incomes, by the same logic she maybe should "perhaps" be ordered to pay SS temporarily to him to keep the bills paid, etc. while a divorce is pending and the property divided/settled.
That could happen if he is the one who stays in the marital home while the divorce is pending.
 

nextwife

Senior Member
Actually, the party that is NOT able to remain in the marital home is the one incurring the additional cost of a second place to live.
 

LdiJ

Senior Member
Actually, the party that is NOT able to remain in the marital home is the one incurring the additional cost of a second place to live.
True, but if there is a home, with a mortgage, the court would see it as in the best interest of both parties to preserve that asset. Or if a lease was signed that could not easily be broken etc.

Many married couples are in a situation where neither of them can afford to both make the house payment, and provide necessarily living expenses on their own income (yes, I know that is not wise which is why I have never owned the maximum house that my income says I can afford, while I was married OR single). Therefore, its not infrequent for there to be pendente lite support, the purpose of which being to preserve the assets/keep the bills paid, until everything is settled/house sold etc. or the divorce/property settlement finalized.
 

nextwife

Senior Member
True, but if there is a home, with a mortgage, the court would see it as in the best interest of both parties to preserve that asset. Or if a lease was signed that could not easily be broken etc.

Many married couples are in a situation where neither of them can afford to both make the house payment, and provide necessarily living expenses on their own income (yes, I know that is not wise which is why I have never owned the maximum house that my income says I can afford, while I was married OR single). Therefore, its not infrequent for there to be pendente lite support, the purpose of which being to preserve the assets/keep the bills paid, until everything is settled/house sold etc. or the divorce/property settlement finalized.
It seems to me that it would make more sense, then, and be more palatable, to simply order the other party to pay 50% of X bills directly to the entity. Because if the PURPOSE is to "make sure certain jt bills get paid" then sending money to one party does NOT actually insure that, as the receiving party can simply use those funds any way they wish.

I agree about the not buying more house than one can cover on one income. Hubby and I have a house pmt. that I can easily cover using only the amount of money I rec'd for a few months on unemployment alone. But we were willling to "work our way up" to more house, rather than expecting to start out that way.
 
It seems to me that it would make more sense, then, and be more palatable, to simply order the other party to pay 50% of X bills directly to the entity. Because if the PURPOSE is to "make sure certain jt bills get paid" then sending money to one party does NOT actually insure that, as the receiving party can simply use those funds any way they wish.

I agree about the not buying more house than one can cover on one income. Hubby and I have a house pmt. that I can easily cover using only the amount of money I rec'd for a few months on unemployment alone. But we were willling to "work our way up" to more house, rather than expecting to start out that way.
I agree with this...my only comment is that some spouses, perhaps angry about moving out, would not pay the entity, possibly without the other spouse even knowing until it is in default. So sending money to the party, true, doesn't insure it gets paid, but neither does ordering payer to pay entity. Either way is a problem. Although perhaps spouse moving out wouldn't mind paying entity directly, rather than paying the ex.
 

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