I believe that you are wrong. The property is going to be treated the same way in both state because both states are community property states. What matters is whether or not community property is used to maintain the property.
In Texas, according to this web site:
https://ghristlaw.com/blogs/common-community-property-issues-in-texas-real-estate-law/
It is saying:
Rental Income
"Income from separate property accruing during marriage is community property.
In re Marriage of Cigainero, 305 S.W.3d 798, 802 (Ct. App.—Texarkana 2010). Accordingly, where a mortgage loan used for purchase of separate property prior to marriage is paid down using income accumulated during the marriage, the community estate may be entitled to reimbursement for those payments as the payments did not come from separate property.
Id"
I don't see where it mention at all about the location of the rental property or not.
While in CA, according to this web site:
https://www.cpcal.com/resources/summary-of-ca-law/
It is saying:
Separate property is defined as:
- Property owned before your marriage by one spouse as an individual
- Property acquired during marriage as a gift or from an inheritance
- Property acquired after your legal date of separation
Earnings, income or appreciation from separate property sources remain separate property. If there is a dispute about whether an asset is separate property, you must have proof that you acquired the separate property in one of these ways, and have documentation to trace the separate property back to the original source.
Regards