I am a male and 37 years old. i bought a house in Virginia in 2000 and only my name is on the deed. I still own the house. I got married in 2007 in Virginia and have 3 kids with my wife who earn significantly more than i do. My wife and Kids are still in VA but in the process of moving to TX. I am now and have been residing in TX for almost a year by myself and my house is still in Virginia, My Wife recently threatened me for a divorce. I am assuming that she wont have any money from my house in VA? if i sell it now, then will she be entitled to the money generated from the sale of the house now or since it has always been my house all along and pr- marriage, so she cant claim that house or the money from its sale now? we are still married, but i want to protect myself and my asset (house) if she do decide to take the divorce route. So since i have always owned that house, does it make any difference if i sell it now or after divorce? if i sell it now, then a year later she decides to divorce me, then can i keep that money generated from the sale of my house as long as i keep the money "separate"? or dont sell the house now, and make them move to TX and if she takes the divorce route, she wont be entitled to my house? or is it better to take the divorce route in VA or TX after they move?